Petition for Writ of Certiorari — Park Manor Manor, Ltd. v. Department of Health and Human Services (No. 07-537)
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me Court, U.S.
Suprey ILED
nog 7-537 007 19 2007
OFFICE OF THE CLERK
In The
Supreme Court of the Anited States
¢
PARK MANOR, LTD..,
Petitioner,
V.
U.S. DEPARTMENT OF
HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES
AND
CENTERS FOR MEDICARE
AND MEDICAID SERVICES,
Respondents.
On Petition For A Writ Of Certiorari
To The United States Court Of Appeals
For The Seventh Circuit
o
PETITION FOR A WRIT OF CERTIORARI
®
ROBERT M. HESSLINK, JR.
HESSLINK LAW OFFICES, S.C.
State Bar No. 1013876
Counsel of Record for Petitioner
P.O. Box 930005
Verona, WI! 53593-0005
(608) 845-3775
(OOCRKLE LAW BRIEF PRINTING Con seer 225 ened
ORCALL COLLECT 2) 342-25.3
QUESTIONS PRESENTED
1. Is a non-governmental party who prevails in
an administrative rule enforcement proceeding
thereby barred from obtaining an award of attorneys
fees under the “excessive demand” provisions of 5
U.S.C. §504(a\(4)?
2. What legal standard should be applied in
determining whether an agency’s demand is substan-
tially in excess of the decision and is unreasonable
when compared with such decision, within the mean-
ing of 5 U.S.C. §504( a4)?
3. Is an agency required to establish that its
actions that prompted administrative litigation had a
reasonable basis in fact and law in order to avoid an
award of the attorneys fees incurred in that proceed-
ing under 5 U.S.C. §504(a)(1) if the agency’s actions
were designed to advance public health or safety?
4. Is an agency's position substantially justified
if some of its position has a reasonable basis in fact
and law but the larger portion of it does not?
li
CORPORATE DISCLOSURE STATEMENT
Park Manor, Ltd. is a Wisconsin corporation.
There is no parent corporation. There is no publicly
held company that has an ownership interest in Park
Manor, Ltd.
ill
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Page
QUESTIONS PRESENTED.................cccessceseseees i
CORPORATE DISCLOSURE STATEMENT ...... il
EPS BIE FE Nini stkcesevorcveveneiesivnseesectns Vv
TABLE OF AUTHORITIES. ........c0cccscsescoccesecsveess vi
Ce eae UE SG OE pxntadenvntccecsdvenindcdenicocsemnntouncons 1
STATEMENT OF JURISDICTION. .................... 1
STATUTES AND REGULATIONS INVOLVED ..... 2
STATEMENT OF THE CASE................cccsecceseees 2
REASONS FOR GRANTING THE PETITION... 8
I. THE CIRCUIT COURT’S INTERPRETA-
TION OF 5 U.S.C. §504(a)(4) WAR-
RANTS REVIEW BY THIS COURT......... 10
A. Whether Prevailing Litigants Should
Be Barred From Recovering Under 5
U.S.C. §504(a)(4) Is An Important Is-
sue Of Federal Law That Should Be
SOUL Fy TS CGS S oaccsnecsesescssncncienss 11
B. The Decision Of The Seventh Circuit
Is Based On A Standard For Deter-
mining When A Demand Is Excessive
That Does Not Represent The Only
Reasonable Construction Of 5 U.S.C.
IIE MIT scs cincedincicies nmin ed dbaseaieeteoweeceens 17
iv
TABLE OF CONTENTS -— Continued
Page
Il. THE HOLDING THAT AN AGENCY
WHICH ENFORCES PUBLIC HEALTH
OR SAFETY REQUIREMENTS CAN BE
RELIEVED OF ITS OBLIGATION TO
PROVE THAT ITS PRE-LITIGATION PO-
SITION WAS SUBSTANTIALLY JUSTI-
FIED WARRANTS REVIEW
A. The Creation Of A Separate Standard
Of Reasonableness For Agencies
Which Regulate In The Areas Of Pub-
lic Health Or Safety Should Only Be
Done After A Thorough Review By
This Court
. The Circuit Court’s Holding That
CMS Is Not Required To Investigate
Prior To Imposing Remedies Is In Ap-
parent Conflict With Principles Es-
tablished By A Decision Of Another
Circuit Court
THE DAB’S CONCLUSION, THAT AN
AGENCY’S POSITION IS SUBSTAN-
TIALLY JUSTIFIED IF SOME ALLE-
GATIONS HAVE A REASONABLE
BASIS IN FACT AND LAW BUT THE
LARGER PORTION DOES NOT, CON-
FLICTS WITH DECISIONS OF OTHER
CIRCUIT COURTS
CONCLUSION
TABLE OF APPENDIX
Opinion of the United States Court of Appeals
for the Seventh Circuit Decided July 23,
December 16, 2005 Decision of the Departmen-
tal Appeals Board Presiding Board Member
Judith A. Ballard and Board Members Ce-
cilia Sparks Ford and Donald F. Garrett,
Decision No. 2005
March 31, 2006 Addendum to Decision No.
2005 of the Departmental Appeals Board
Presiding Board Member Judith A. Ballard
and Board Members Cecilia Sparks Ford and
Donald F. Garrett
June 17, 2004 Decision of the Departmental
Appeals Board Presiding Board Member Ju-
dith A. Ballard and Board Members Cecilia
Sparks Ford and Donald F. Garrett, Decision
No. 1926
5 U.S.C. §504
Page
rN NB visirnccenandcecianec th badeceseeinieneroatouieves App.
rs ks hiccatascn'd saa onacenctscrenataaenians App.
er isin nly todtecanidenaenrcnrnconedians App.
ar i a icsicnieai Neacidicsavactnnipvecipicinioes App.
ee Se aiticcethin ks App.
ee I isaac cs acd yccidcansuainpegshiedaenin ain App.
vl
TABLE OF AUTHORITIES
Page
CASES
Air Transp. Ass’n of Can. v. Fed. Aviation
Admin., 156 F.3d 1329 (D.C. Cir. 1998)........... 30, 31
Alphin v. Nat'l Transp. Safety Bd., 839 F.2d
Fs, MOE UID caiesacacsauaceencninecaensevicieesuebiamesenais 30
American Wrecking Corp. v. Sec’y of Labor, 364
F.3d 321 (D.C. Cir. 2004)........ ibehiabiieenitiatien 12, 13, 14
Baldi Bros. Constructors v. U.S., 52 Fed. Cl. 78
I ica stihl aca accion tbe kk dine inca aeiediidtion 22
Clermont Nursing and Convalescent Ctr. v.
CMS, DAB No. CR1087, 2003 WL 22326547
II EIUEEIITIIED vii ssnWousscgnosssoeausiveeecmnssueieicbunlesernees 24
Commissioner, I.N.S. v. Jean, 496 U.S. 154
INIT schichinticuesiiavisdbehanttateonsimuaneeunaareaiens 8, 9, 26, 27, 29
Community Hosp. of Long Beach v. CMS, DAB
No. 1938 (08/18/04), 2004 WL 2102876 (HHS)......... 24
Contractor’s Sand and Gravel, Inc. v. Federal
Mine Safety and Health Review Comm’n, 199
F.36 1996 (D.C. Civ. SO0D)....nccccccscoccccscsvesess 23, 27, 28
Delta Air Lines, Inc. v. August, 450 U.S. 346
8 RENE RETA Pap On ler Cone eee ee enor Ora LT 15, 16
Donovan v. Dialamerica Marketing, Inc., 757
Be BT CO GAT, FBG) on cecccceeivctinnsecevnepispenccestccen 21
Dougherty v. Lehman, 711 F.2d 555 (3rd Cir.
LEAR ery See Oe On ERT Raine RE? neC ane NT 20
Enerhaul, Inc. v. N.L.R.B., 710 F.2d 748 (11th
Ey | SEER eee eee orev TO Genesee aers ony 21
TABLE OF AUTHORITIES - Continued
EuroPlast, Ltd. v. N.L.R.B., 33 F.3d 16 (7th Cir.
FJ. Vollmer Co., Inc. v. Magaw, 102 F.3d 591
(D.C. Cir. 1996)
Hanover Potato Prod., Inc. v. Shalala, 989 F.2d
123 (3rd Cir. 1993)
Harmony Court v. CMS, DAB Dec. No. 1968
(2005), Medicare and Medicaid Guide (CCH)
{ 120803, 2005 WL 835751
Iowa Express Distribution, Inc. v. N.L.R.B., 739
F.2d 1305 (8th Cir. 1984)
KMS Fusion, Inc. v. U.S., 39 Fed. Cl. 593
(1997)
Marcus v. Shalala, 17 F.3d 1033 (7th Cir. 1994)
Mobil Oil Exploration & Producing Southeast,
Inc. v. United Distribution, 498 U.S. 211
(1991)
Park Manor, Ltd. v. U.S. Dept. of Health and
Human Services, 495 F.3d 433 (7th Cir. 2007)
Park Manor Nursing Home v. Centers for
Medicare & Medicaid Services, DAB No.
2005 (2005), 2005 WL 3753088 (HHS)
Park Manor Nursing Home v. Centers for
Medicare & Medicaid Services, DAB No.
1926 (2004), Med & Med GD (CCH)
{ 120676, 2004 WL 1764725 (HHS)
Pennsylvania Dep't of Public Welfare v. Daven-
port, 495 U.S. 552 (1990)
vill
TABLE 6: AUTHORITIES — Continued
Pettyjohn v. Chater, 888 F.Supp. 1065 (D.C.
Colo. 1995)
Phil Smidt & Son, Inc. v. N.L.R.B., 810 F.2d
638 (7th Cir. 1987)
Pierce v. Underwood, 487 U.S. 552 (1988).....8, 9, 20, 22
Prod. & Maint. Employees’ Local 504 v. Road-
master Corp., 954 F.2d 1397 (7th Cir. 1992) 20
Roanoke River Basin Ass’n v. Hudson, 991 F.2d
132 (4th Cir. 1993)
Sec’y of Labor v. Wolkow Braker Roofing Corp.,
19 O.S.H. Cas. (BNA) 1267, 2000 O.S.H.D.
(CCH) 132199, 2000 WL 1466087
Sec’y of Labor, Mine Safety and Health Admini-
stration (MSHA) v. L & T Fabrication &
Constr, Inc., 22 FMSHRC 509, 2000
O.S.H.D. (CCH) 732092, 2000 WL 687693
(FF EB Net ioc bisceausedcdedaaibadvebetaiedtmiaaianaaans 9,18
U.S. v. Hallmark Constr. Co., 200 F.3d 1076
(7th Cir. 2000)
U.S. v. One 1997 Toyota Land Cruiser, 248 F.3d
899 (9th Cir. 2001)
U.S. v. Jones, 125 F.3d 1418 (11th Cir. 1997)
STATUTES AND REGULATIONS
5 U.S.C. §504
5 U.S.C. §504(a)(1) passim
Dy UL, BRNO) wovinccctcisttiosanciccntecssecneceedeumaaae 2
iX
TABLE OF AUTHORITIES — Continued
Page
I I on vccevenncsseensssevevesvsssesescenseeve passim
BUB.C. SBOE INE) .......0..cccsccccvesesrersers 20, 23, 25, 26
ss wc onsen npestberronervectesesnsnnes 2
ec sccsseuunenssaneterssncecesscssseseseceecers 1
IE BID sco cesccsverscnvecvccsssvescnvceesoosesecoeens 8
Rs, EE PEA ERED) caso cevecsevevscesesesveeseveseessonss 13, 14
SC 2
Nees sss scuvwnneescvevennsiversvers 4
Neen Lac cccivensusbsstvenseverensesceeseseseeeseses 2
nn a. insncansssevesnsesousncesvesesrseeoress 3
Teens irdas cickendseuvevevereesvedvercerveses 2
es Ly svin esse cbsetinsevionvevecnusveececcenes 2
ass icssudaxtueregvesivedssseesaccovcesesesosrevens 2
Neen id as ccvwknneensuavenesecstevenescssees 2
Nee ee ds ccsuseveaeurseencvesceessaecousececeueveseee 2
I EIN osc. ccusenivnsencesesescecnsecescccscccsvecececeosees 11
EE cs cvvecsanucvrsceseversseccscovecescorcevecsvecesceessese 2
OTHER AUTHORITIES
ccs can cuvexsnvocscevevsecsevescssscscecvosscssecesess 15
Pub. L. No. 104-121, 110 Stat 847... 8
1
OPINIONS BELOW
The opinion of the United States Court of Ap-
peals for the Seventh Circuit is reported at Park
Manor, Ltd. v. U.S. Dept. of Health and Human
Services, 495 F.3d 433 (7th Cir. 2007). (App. 1)
The Seventh Circuit affirmed decisions of the
Department of Health and Human Services Depart-
mental Appeals Board. The primary decision is Park
Manor Nursing Home v. Centers for Medicare &
Medicaid Services, DAB No. 2005 (2005), 2005 WL
3753088 (HHS). (App. 9) The DAB’s supplemental
decision dated March 31, 2006 is unreported. (App.
135)
The decision on the merits of the case by the
Departmental Appeals Board is Park Manor Nursing
Home v. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services,
DAB No. 1926 (2004), Med & Med GD (CCH)
4120676, 2004 WL 1764725 (HHS). (App. 157)
¢
STATEMENT OF JURISDICTION
This Court’s jurisdiction is invoked under 28
U.S.C. §1254(1) to review the circuit court’s decision
on a writ of certiorari. This case seeks review of the
final decision of the Court of Appeals for the Seventh
Circuit affirming a decision of the Department of
Health and Human Services Departmental Appeals
Board (DAB) on an application for attorneys fees
under the Equal Access to Justice Act. The DAB had
2
jurisdiction over the fee claim under 5 U.S.C.
§504(a)(2). The circuit court had jurisdiction to review
the agency decisions under 5 U.S.C. §504(c)(2) and 42
U.S.C. §$1320a-7a(e). The circuit court’s decision was
issued on July 23, 2007.
¢
STATUTES AND REGULATIONS INVOLVED
The statute involved in this case is 5 U.S.C. §504,
the Equal Access to Justice Act and, because it is
lengthy, it is printed verbatim in the appendix at
pages 177-182. The regulations involved are 45 C.F.R.
§§13.1-13.6, which are also printed verbatim in the
appendix at pages 183-191.
+
STATEMENT OF THE CASE
42 C.F.R. §488.308 requires that all nursing
homes who provide services to Medicare eligible
individuals be surveyed at least annually to deter-
mine if they are being operated in compliance with
federal requirements. The Department of Health and
Human Services (HHS) contracts with a state agency
in Wisconsin to conduct these surveys of Wisconsin
nursing homes on HHS’s behalf. Centers for Medicare
and Medicaid Services (CMS) administers this pro-
gram within HHS.
3
_ Following a March 2001 annual survey, the state
survey agency issued a 123-page statement of defi-
ciency (SOD) to Park Manor, a Wisconsin nursing
home. That SOD alleged 22 deficiencies, or failures to
comply with federal requirements. Six deficiencies
alleged actual harm to residents and one alleged a
situation of immediate jeopardy (IJ), the most severe
form of deficiency. A substandard care allegation imme-
diately suspended Park Manor’s nurse aide training
and competency evaluation program (NATCEP) for two
years. CMS approved all of these recommended find-
ings by the state survey agency and imposed the
NATCEP suspension, a $12,400 civil money penalty
(CMP) for the IJ, and a continuing CMP of $250 per
day for the other alleged deficiencies.
Following a June 2001 verification visit (VV), the
state agency recommended, and CMS approved, six
additional deficiencies, including one that was a
“repeat” of a deficiency cited in the March survey.
CMS then imposed the remedy of a suspension of
reimbursement for new admissions, and it continued
the accrual of the daily CMPs. Park Manor timely
appealed all of these deficiencies and remedies.
The IJ and substandard care determinations, and
a number of the alleged deficiencies, were dismissed
in informal dispute resolution (IDR) proceedings
while the appeal process was pending.’ This dismissal
’ IDR proceedings represent an opportunity for a facility to
informally dispute survey findings. 42 C.F.R. §488.331.
4
caused the $12,400 CMP for the IJ to be set aside.
Following a subsequent VV which found Park Manor
in substantial compliance, the amount of the daily
CMP imposed by CMS for the remaining deficiencies
was set at $250 per day for 124 days, or $31,000.
The ALJ issued a prehearing order which re-
quired each party to disclose the evidence it had to
support its position(s). CMS elected to go forward to
hearing with six deficiencies from the initial survey
and one from the VV and it reduced its demand for a
CMP to $150 per day. Two of those seven deficiencies
were subsequently dismissed on Park Manor’s motion
for summary disposition, including the only remain-
ing VV deficiency. That ruling set aside the suspen-
sion of reimbursement for new admissions. It also
reduced the number of days on which a daily CMP
could be imposed to the days between the date of the
survey and the date of the June VV.
After an evidentiary hearing on the remaining
five allegations, the ALJ upheld that daily CMP. His
decision was based on one deficiency, an alleged
failure to consult with a doctor concerning a signifi-
cant change of condition. The ALJ concluded that this
one deficiency was sufficient to sustain the remaining
remedy. Since the total amount of the CMP was
greater than $5,000, the NATCEP suspension was
also upheld. See 42 C.F.R. §483.151. The ALJ’s deci-
sion did not address the remaining four deficiencies,
which had been alleged at a lesser degree of serious-
ness.
3)
On review, the DAB dismissed the physician
consultation deficiency. It concluded that CMS and
the ALJ had misapplied the regulations and that
there was undisputed evidence that the changes at
issue had occurred before Park Manor’s previous
report to the physician and the resident wanted
comfort measures only. It also concluded that CMS
had failed to make a prima facie case on the potential
for more than minimal harm, one of the required
elements necessary to show a lack of substantial
compliance. (App. 158) All of the remaining enforce-
ment remedies imposed by CMS were set aside. Jd.
The DAB chose to dismiss all the remedies,
rather than address or remand the remaining allega-
tions to the ALJ for a determination. It did so, in part,
because all were at a level of seriousness such that
CMS would not have been required to impose any
remedy if they were the only findings CMS had made
in the first instance. (App. 174-176) It also found that
CMS had not continued to pursue those deficiencies
beyond the ALJ level. CMS’s motion for a rehearing
on this issue was denied.
Park Manor then applied for attorneys fees and
costs under the Equal Access to Justice Act (EAJA),
basing its application on both 5 U.S.C. §§504(a)(1)
and (4). In responding to that motion, CMS did not
present any evidence in support of either the facts or
the legal theories for the 21 deficiencies which it
had alleged and which were either dismissed in IDR
or which it had elected not to pursue. It contended
only that it was entitled to reasonably rely on the
6
allegations made in the SODs. The ALJ denied the
fee applications in their entirety without addressing
these 21 deficiencies.
The DAB partially reversed the ALJ’s complete
denial of fees but concluded that, with the exception
of one VV cite and its attendant remedies (the VV cite
dismissed on summary disposition), the position of
CMS was substantially justified. (App. 11) In doing
so, it adopted CMS’s arguments that its position was
substantially justified if there were some deficiencies
sufficient to support a remedy that were reasonably
supported by the facts and law, regardless of whether
the remainder were not. The DAB also held CMS was
entitled to rely upon the allegations in the SODs
themselves and no further evidence of reasonableness
was necessary.
In determining that CMS’s position was sub-
stantially justified with respect to the physician
notification deficiency which it had previously dis-
missed, the DAB concluded that CMS was justified
in relying on the allegations in the SOD, even
though at the hearing it provided no evidence sup-
porting many of these factual allegations. (App. 59-
63) (“CMS had a reasonable basis in fact for its
initial determination, relying in part on these find-
ings in the SOD. .. .”) (App. 59)
The DAB concluded that Park Manor was not
entitled to a fee award under §504(a)(4) because
“CMS did not obtain any part of its initial demand,”
and the provisions of §504(a)(4) were unavailable to
7
provide relief to prevailing parties. (App. 126) After
directing Park Manor to allocate its fees between the
claim found not to be substantially justified and the
other claims, it awarded Park Manor a small portion
of the fees which it had originally sought under
§504(a)(1). (App. 156)
On a petition for review, the Seventh Circuit
Court of Appeals affirmed the decision of the DAB. It
concluded that CMS had no obligation to demonstrate
that its initial positions in approving the SODs and
imposing the remedies had a reasonable basis in fact
and law. It reasoned that requiring CMS to verify the
facts and legal theories upon which the SODs were
based prior to approving them and imposing remedies
would undermine the efficiency of the survey proce-
dures and “retard the correction of the deficiencies
found by the state agency.” (App. 6)
That court also concluded that allowing prevail-
ing litigants to recover under the excessive demand
theory of §504(a)(4) was contrary to the purpose of
EAJA because it would undermine the substantial
justification analysis embodied in §504(a)(1). (App. 7-
8) Embodied in that holding was the conclusion that,
unless barred from applying, a prevailing party would
automatically qualify for fees under §504(a)(4) be-
cause the amount of the agency’s demand that it
would have recovered would be zero.
S
8
REASONS FOR GRANTING THE PETITION
This Court has twice before had occasion to
construe the EAJA in Pierce v. Underwood, 487 U.S.
552 (1988) and Commissioner, I.N.S. v. Jean, 496 U.S.
154 (1990). In both of those cases, the Court con-
strued the EAJA provisions which are applicable to
court proceedings, 28 U.S.C. §2412(d)(1)(A), rather
than those governing administrative proceedings.
This case would provide the Court with an opportu-
nity to address those EAJA provisions which are
incorporated in the Administrative Procedure Act
(APA). It would also provide the Court with an oppor-
tunity to construe the 1996 amendments, Pub. L. No.
104-121, 110 Stat 847, 862-863, which expanded the
basis for recovery of fees to include, not only cases in
which the government’s position on th: merits was
not substantially justified, but also where the gov-
ernment seeks a penalty that is unreasonable when
compared to the final result.
EAJA is designed to provide a climate of fairness
in which federal agencies and officers will make their
decisions. 5 U.S.C. §§504(aX1) and (4) are designed to
insure that federal agencies who enforce federal
requirements will base their decisions on a reason-
able factual and legal basis and that they do not seek
unreasonable penalties in code enforcement proceed-
ings. Since government positions that are not rea-
sonably based on fact or law, or which seek excessive
penalties, are those most likely to be challenged, the
ultimate result of a fully effective EAJA would there-
fore be a reduction in the amount of litigation.
9
This Court should grant this petition for certio-
rari in order to address and resolve four important
questions involving the interpretation of EAJA that,
unless resolved, are likely to recur in administrative
proceedings in the future. This case squarely presents
the question of whether an administrative litigant
who prevails in an administrative enforcement pro-
ceeding should be thereby barred from recovering its
attorneys fees and costs under the excessive demand
provisions, 5 U.S.C. §504(a)(4). The Seventh Circuit’s
holding that the provisions of §504(a)(4) are unavail-
able to a prevailing party also rests on its implied
holding that eligibility for fees under §504(a)(4) is
governed exclusively by a single quantitative analysis
which compares the demand to the result. This
implied holding conflicts with the two-part test
developed in Sec’y of Labor, Mine Safety and Health
Administration (MSHA) v. L & T Fabrication &
Constr., Inc., 22 FMSHRC 509, 2000 0.S.H.D. (CCH)
732092, 2000 WL 687693 (F.M.S.H.R.C.).
This case also squarely presents the question, not
addressed in Pierce v. Underwood, supra, of whether
an agency's duty to fairly evaluate whether its actions
which lead to litigation are reasonable in law and fact
can be abrogated when the agency’s mission includes
the protection of public health or safety. Finally,
though not addressed by the circuit court, this case
presents the question left unanswered in Commis-
sioner, I.N.S. v. Jean, supra, of whether a position
that is substantially justified, in part, can serve as a
basis for a fee award under 5 U.S.C. §504(a\1).
10
THE CIRCUIT COURT'S INTERPRETA-
TION OF 5 U.S.C. §504(a)(4) WARRANTS
REVIEW BY THIS COURT.
The excessive demand provisions of EAJA were
adopted as part of the 1996 amendments, and have
never before been construed or addressed by this
Court. The excessive demand provisions of EAJA
included in the APA are contained in 5 U.S.C.
§504(a)(4). They provide that, in a proceeding in
which an agency seeks to enforce a statute or admin-
istrative rule and the penalty it seeks to impose was
unreasonable when compared to the result, the target
of the proceeding can recover the attorneys fees asso-
ciated with defending against the excessive penalty.
This case presents two distinct issues concerning
the interpretation of 5 U.S.C. §504(a)(4) that are
worthy of this Court’s review. First, is a party who
prevails in the enforcement proceeding foreclosed
from relief under §504(a)(4) and limited to relief
under §504(a)(1) [the substantial justification stan-
dard], regardless of whether the penalties sought to
be imposed would otherwise be considered excessive?
Second, what is the proper test for the agencies and
the courts to apply in determining whether the penal-
ties sought by the agency were, in fact, excessive?
11
A. Whether Prevailing Litigants Should
Be Barred From Recovering Under 5
U.S.C. §504(a)(4) Is An Important Issue
Of Federal Law That Should Be Set-
tled By This Court.
The Seventh Circuit held that the reach of 5
U.S.C. §504(a)(4) is confined “to the case in which the
government prevails but the relief it obtains is mea-
ger in comparison to the relief it had sought.” (App. 7)
It based this conclusion upon a belief that allowing
prevailing litigants to get a second bite at the same
apple would undercut the “substantially justified”
standard set out in 5 U.S.C. §504(a)\(1). Id. This
holding was grounded on policy considerations, rather
than upon the language of the statute itself. If al-
lowed to stand without review, such a holding could
result in a substantial narrowing of the scope of
§504(a)(4).
The primary guide in construing a statute or rule
is normally its plain language. “[S]tatutory interpre-
tation begins with the language of the statute itself.”
Pennsylvania Dep't of Public Welfare v. Davenport,
495 U.S. 552, 557-58 (1990) and Mobil Oil Explora-
tion & Producing Southeast, Inc. v. United Distribu-
tion, 498 U.S. 211, 223 (1991). Neither 5 U.S.C.
$504(a)(4) nor 45 C.F.R. §13.5(b), the rule which
applies it to DAB cases, contain any language which
would limit their reach to non-prevailing parties.
Section 504(a)(4) states that:
12
If, in an adversary adjudication arising from
an agency action to enforce a party’s compli-
ance with a statutory or regulatory require-
ment, the demand by the agency is
substantially in excess of the decision of the
adjudicative officer and is unreasonable
when compared with such decision, under
the facts and circumstances of the case, the
adjudicative officer shall award to the party
the fees and other expenses related to de-
fending against the excessive demand. ...
(Emphasis added.)
In addition, §§504(a)(1) and (a)(4) appear to
direct themselves to different potential administra-
tive abuses. Section (a)(1) addresses agency positions
that are not substantially justified. Section (a4)
addresses demands for penalties in code enforcement
actions that are excessive. These two scenarios are
not necessarily mutually exclusive. Agencies can, and
often do, litigate cases in which they take positions
that are both not substantially justified and seek
penalties that are unreasonable and excessive. Ab-
sent the Seventh Circuit’s policy concerns, subsec-
tions (a)(1) and (a)(4), on their face, would appear to
allow a successful litigant to pursue either or both
theories in an appropriate case.
Section 504(a)(4) does not have the significant
history of interpretation by the courts that §504(a)(1)
enjoys. The only other circuit court decision dealing
with the excessive demand provisions of the EAJA,
American Wrecking Corp. v. Sec’y of Labor, 364 F.3d
13
321 (D.C. Cir. 2004), interpreted the language of 28
U.S.C. §2412(d)(1)(D), not 5 U.S.C. §504(a)(4).
Though the court below relied on American
Wrecking Corp. and the two decisions are not incon-
sistent, an analysis of the existing legal authority on
which the American Wrecking Corp. court relied
shows that its analysis of the issue was not extensive.
By the point in its analysis where the American
Wrecking Corp. court was deciding whether to apply
§2412(d)(1D), it had already approved an award of
fees based on the lack of substantial justification for
the government’s position. Jd. at 327-328. The circuit
court then went on to conclude that the excessive
demand provision did not permit the recovery of a
larger award than the litigant was entitled to under
the substantial justification standard. /d.
This statement in American Wrecking Corp.,
which appears in the decision almost as an after-
thought, is simply stated in terms of the court’s
inability to “imagine Congress to have intended” such
a result, id. at 328, followed by citation to U.S. v. One
1997 Toyota Land Cruiser, 248 F.3d 899, 904 (9th Cir.
2001) and Sec’y of Labor v. Wolkow Braker Roofing
Corp., 19 O.S.H. Cas. (BNA) 1267, 2000 O.S.H.D.
(CCH) 132199, 2000 WL 1466087. Neither of these
_ two decisions cited as authority in American Wrecking
Corp., however, adopted the proposition for which the
American Wrecking Corp. court cited them.
In Toyota Land Cruiser, the issue was whether
fees under 28 U.S.C. §2412(d)\1)(D) could be awarded
14
where the case had settled prior to judgment. The
issue of whether a party could recover fees based on
an excessive demand theory when the government
did not obtain any relief was not in the case. In
concluding that the claimant was entitled to fees, the
Ninth Circuit Court merely acknowledged that
“(d1)(D) awards fees to parties against whom the
United States obtains a judgment, with no exception
for substantial justification.” 248 F.3d at 904. The
court did not conclude, because it was not called upon
to conclude, that fees were not obtainable on an
excessive demand theory where the government had
been totally unsuccessful on the merits.
Wolkow can be fairly construed to hold that being
a prevailing party is not a bar to recovery under 5
U.S.C. §504(a)(4). After a review of the legislative
history, Wolkow concluded that “the test for attorney
fees under 504(a)(4) requires a showing that the
demand by the Agency taken as a whole was unrea-
sonable in relation to the final outcome taken as a
whole without regard as to which litigant was the
prevailing party.” Sec’y of Labor v. Wolkow Braker
Roofing Corp., supra, at 5. (Emphasis in original and
added.)
The precedent from which the American Wreck-
ing Corp. holding is derived is therefore less than
clear and compelling. If anything, these cases demon-
strate that the lower courts and agencies are strug-
gling to come to grips with a relatively new addition
to a statute which has yet to be definitively construed
15
by this Court. A decision on this issue by this Court
would therefore provide needed guidance to the lower
courts and administrative agencies forced to address
attorneys fee requests under the 1996 amendments.
Accepting review would also allow this Court to
fully explore the policy considerations upon which the
Seventh Circuit’s decision rests. Those considera-
tions, while stated, were neither fully analyzed nor
based on fully accurate assumptions. The circuit
court’s “second bite at the same apple” analogy (App.
7), for example, is not a totally accurate portrayal of
the relief available to a prevailing litigant under
§504(a)(4). To the extent that §504(aX4) may provide
a prevailing party with a second bite at all, it would
usually be a bite of a smaller, rather than the same,
apple. While §504(a)(1) provides for the recovery of all
reasonable fees incurred, §(a)(4) only provides for a
recovery of fees “related to defending against the
excessive demand.”
The circuit court also reasoned that the purpose
of §504(a\(4) is “parallel ... to Rule [FRCP] 68”
because it “penalizes the greedy winning plaintiff but
is inapplicable if the defendant wins.” (App. 7-8) In
support of this analogy, the court cited this Court’s
decision in Delta Air Lines, Inc. v. August, 450 U.S.
346 (1981). In effect, the circuit court extended Delta
Air Lines and the rationale underlying Rule 68 into
an administrative proceeding in which the fee request
is not based upon a refused settlement offer.
16
The holding in Delta Air Lines was based upon
this Court’s reading of the clear language of Rule 68,
which limited its scope to a situation in which the
defendant had lost on the merits. (“[T]he words
‘judgment ... obtained by the offeree’ — rather than
words like ‘any judgment’... confines its effect to” a
case in which the offeror lost on the merits. 450 U.S.
at 351. Section 504(a)(4), in contrast, uses the more
general term “decision,” which does not connote
either a win or a loss for the moving party. Whether
this Court’s holding in Delta Air Lines, which was
based on the clear language of a procedural rule
designed to encourage settlement, should be extended
to govern the construction of a statute which is de-
signed to encourage parties to vindicate their rights,
and which contains language much less suggestive of
a similar result, is an issue that should best be re-
solved by this Court.
Accepting review would also allow this Court to
address a policy concern that the Seventh Circuit did
not address in its opinion. Should an agency be liable
under §504(a)(4), where it takes a legally and factu-
ally correct position, but makes an excessive demand
for a remedy, but not be so liable where it made that
same excessive demand, and based it on a position
that was legally and/or factually incorrect (but not so
incorrect as to not be substantially justified)? A “yes”
answer to this question is, in fact, one of the practical
effects of the Seventh Circuit’s construction of 5
U.S.C. §504(a)4).
17
Given the absence of any statutory language
which appears to limit the scope of §504(a)(4) in the
manner suggested by the Seventh Circuit, such a
substantial narrowing of a remedial statute for policy
reasons should only be done after careful review by
this Court, if at all. This Court should therefore grant
the petition for certiorari to determine if a potential
avenue of relief under §(a)(4) does exist for prevailing
parties.
B. The Decision Of The Seventh Circuit Is
Based On A Standard For Determining
When A Demand Is Excessive That Does
Not Represent The Only Reasonable
Construction Of 5 U.S.C. §504(a)(4).
In reaching its conclusion that allowing fee
recoveries under §504(a)(4) would undercut the
“substantially justified” standard of §(a)(1), the
Seventh Circuit also necessarily concluded that,
absent such a holding, losing on the merits would
automatically trigger a finding that any demand for
relief was substantially in excess of the decision and
unreasonable, because the agency would have recov-
ered no relief at all. (App. 7-8) The Seventh Circuit
therefore, in effect, held that fee awards under §(a)(4)
are governed by a single quantitative test in which
the final result is mathematically compared to the
demand.
While not in conflict with any other circuit court
decisions on this point, this holding is in apparent
18
conflict with another published, and plausible, inter-
pretation of §(a)(4). Sec’y of Labor, Mine Safety and
Health Administration (MSHA) v. L & T Fabrication
& Constr., Inc., supra. The two-part test adopted by
MSHRC is also traceable to the language of
§504(a)(4), which indicates that fees are recoverable
when the demand was “unreasonable when compared
with such decision ... under the facts and circum-
stances of the case... .” 22 FMSHRC at 513. (Empha-
sis in original.)
In L & T Fabrication & Constr., Inc., the Federal
Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, after a
careful analysis of the statutory language and legisla-
tive history of §504(a)(4), concluded that the 1996
amendments to EAJA “set forth a two-part test for
determining whether fees should be awarded.” Jd. at
514. The first part of the test is a purely quantitative
analysis — a mathematical comparison of the results
with the demand. The second part of the test, how-
ever, is qualitative. It consists of an individual factual
analysis to determine if the administrative decision-
maker acted reasonably under the circumstances in
setting the penalty to be sought.
While the L & T two-part test might make recov-
ery more difficult for some litigants, it also directly
undercuts the entire premise upon which the Seventh
Circuit concluded that it was necessary to limit the
availability of §504(a)(4) to non-prevailing litigants.
For, if a win on the merits does not automatically
translate to a finding that any penalty that was
sought was excessive, the substantial justification
19
analysis under §504(a)(1) would not be undermined
by allowing prevailing parties to seek relief under it,
as the Seventh Circuit feared.
The Seventh Circuit, however, undertook no
analysis to determine what the actual standard of
recovery under §504(a\4) is. It simply assumed that
any litigant who won on the merits would automati-
cally qualify for a fee award under §(a)(4) unless they
were disqualified at the outset.’
This Court should grant the petition for certiorari
because the circuit court’s decision and reasoning
below could lead to the adoption by the courts of the
single quantitative test under 5 U.S.C. §504(a)(4), @n
preference to the two-part test, without a thorough
appellate court analysis of the two alternatives.
* The circuit court decision suggests that Park Manor had
argued for the one-part test. In fact, Park Manor had argued in
its reply brief that
while §(aX4) does not provide for a fee award ‘based
solely on the absolute disparity between the initial
demand and the outcome ... ,’ as DAB concluded in
finding it inapplicable ... the disparity between the
final result and the initial demand is one major factor
the decision maker must consider in determining
whether a fee award is appropriate.
20
II. THE HOLDING THAT AN AGENCY WHICH
ENFORCES PUBLIC HEALTH OR SAFETY
REQUIREMENTS CAN BE RELIEVED OF
ITS OBLIGATION TO PROVE THAT ITS
PRE-LITIGATION POSITION WAS SUB-
STANTIALLY JUSTIFIED WARRANTS RE-
VIEW.
In Pierce v. Underwood, 487 U.S. 552 (1988), this
Court determined that the standard of “substantially
justified” as set forth in EAJA requires that the
position of the agency must be “justified to a degree
that would satisfy a reasonable person.” 487 U.S. at
553. The Court likened this standard to the “reason-
able basis both in law and fact” standard which had
been adopted by the lower court in that case. Id.
Substantially justified means more than just not
frivolous. Pierce v. Underwood, supra, Prod. & Maint.
Employees’ Local 504 v. Roadmaster Corp., 954 F.2d
1397, 1404 (7th Cir. 1992); and Dougherty v. Lehman,
711 F.2d 555, 563 (3rd Cir. 1983).
Under the language of EAJA, the agency’s “posi-
tion” encompasses both its pre-litigation actions
which prompted the litigation and the positions it
takes after the litigation has commenced. (“‘[Plosition
of the agency’ means, in addition to the position taken
by the agency in the adversary adjudication, the
action or failure to act by the agency upon which the
adversary adjudication is based;....”) 5 U.S.C.
§504(b)(1)(E).
Both before and since Pierce v. Underwood was
decided, courts have held that, to avoid a fee award
21
under 5 U.S.C. §504(a)(1), both the agency’s litigation
positions and its actions leading up to the litigation
must be substantially justified. U.S. v. Hallmark
Constr. Co., 200 F.3d 1076, 1081 (7th Cir. 2000); KMS
Fusion, Inc. v. U.S., 39 Fed. Cl. 593, 597 (1997); Fe.
Vollmer Co., Inc. v. Magaw, 102 F.3d 591, 595-596
(D.C. Cir. 1996); Marcus v. Shalala, 17 F.3d 1033,
1036 (7th Cir. 1994); and, lowa Express Distribution,
Inc. v. N.L.R.B., 739 F.2d 1305, 1309 (8th Cir. 1984). A
prevailing party may recover its fees and expenses
under EAJA “where the government’s prelitigation
conduct was not substantially justified even though
its litigating position may have been substantially
justified and vice versa.” Marcus, 17 F.3d at 1036 and
Hallmark, 200 F.3d at 1080-81.
Once a prevailing party moves for fees under
EAJA, “the government bears the burden of proving
that its position was substantially justified.” Marcus
v. Shalala, supra; KMS Fusion, Inc. v. U.S., supra;
Roanoke River Basin Ass'n v. Hudson, 991 F.2d 132,
138-139 (4th Cir. 1993); Donovan v. Dialamerica
Marketing, Inc., 757 F.2d 1376, 1389 (3rd Cir. 1985);
Enerhaul, Inc. v. N.L.R.B., 710 F.2d 748, 750 (11th
Cir. 1983); and, EuroPlast, Lid. v. N.L.R.B., 33 F.3d
16, 17 (7th Cir. 1994). (“‘[Tlo satisfy its burden the
government must demonstrate (1) a reasonable basis
in truth for the facts alleged; (2) a reasonable basis in
law for the theory propounded; and (3) a reasonable
connection between the facts alleged and the legal
theory advanced.’”) Phil Smidt & Son, Inc. v.
N.L.R.B., 810 F.2d 638, 642 (7th Cir. 1987).
22
Because the government has the burden of proof
on substantial justification, CMS’s failure to provide
any factual or legal justification for the bulk of the
deficiencies alleged and remedies imposed as part of
its pre-litigation position would have been conclusive
in the absence of the construction of the EAJA by the
Seventh Circuit. Pettyjohn v. Chater, 888 F. Supp.
1065, 1067 (D.C. Colo. 1995) and Baldi Bros. Con-
structors v. U.S., 52 Fed. Cl. 78, 82 (2002). (“Defen-
dant remains silent on the issue of its prelitigation
conduct.... *** Defendant cannot prove that the
Government’s conduct was substantially justified
when it does not address its conduct at all.”)
In this case, the Seventh Circuit concluded that
CMS was relieved of its obligation to establish the
reasonableness of the factual allegations and legal
theories embodied in its pre-litigation position be-
cause requiring it to investigate prior to acting would
undermine the efficiency of its enforcement proce-
dures and “retard the correction of the deficiencies
found by the state agency.” (App. 6) This holding was
made without citation to any appellate court case law
and apparently based upon the court’s view that
CMS’s actions were analogous to “the interim reme-
dies available in ordinary civil litigation such as
temporary restraining orders.” /d.
This conclusion is in apparent tension with both
the language and policies embodied in 5 U.S.C. §504
and with this Court’s holding in Pierce v. Underwood,
supra. To the extent it relies on CMS’s mission of
protecting public health or safety, it is also in apparent
23
conflict with an earlier decision of the circuit court for
the District of Columbia in Contractor’s Sand and
Gravel, Inc. v. Federal Mine Safety and Health Re-
view Comm’n, 199 F.3d 1335, 1339 (D.C. Cir. 2000).
This Court should therefore grant certiorari in this
case to resolve these conflicts and issues.
A. The Creation Of A Separate Standard
Of Reasonableness For Agencies Which
Regulate In The Areas Of Public Health
Or Safety Should Only Be Done After A
Thorough Review By This Court.
The agency’s pre-litigation position is its “action
or failure to act ... upon which the adversary adjudi-
cation is based.” 5 U.S.C. §504(b)(1)E). CMS’s pre-
litigation position in this case consisted of the 28
alleged deficiencies it approved. It also consisted of all
the remedies which is imposed, including the
$12,400.00 CMP for the IJ, the daily CMP for the
other cites, the NATCEP suspension, and the suspen-
sion of reimbursement for new admissions. These
were the governmental actions which prompted Park
Manor’s appeal and which therefore “gave rise to
the litigation” within the meaning of 5 U.S.C.
§504(b)(1)E) and Marcus, 17 F.3d at 1036.
Twenty-one of those deficiencies supporting the
remedies were either rescinded in IDR or abandoned
by CMS after Park Manor undertook the costs of
investigation and filing an appeal. After Park Manor
prevailed in all aspects of the litigation and moved for
24
fees under EAJA, CMS chose not to introduce any
evidence to support any of these allegations during
the EAJA proceedings. In its answer to the fee appli-
cation, CMS contended only that it “reasonably relied
upon the findings and recommendations of the State
survey agency... .”
The state survey agency’s actions, however, are
subject to approval by CMS. They may also, in fact, be
the actions of CMS. The DAB has held in other con-
texts that a state survey agency is the “agent” of CMS
and its acts are attributable to it. Clermont Nursing
and Convalescent Ctr. v. CMS, DAB No. CR1087,
2003 WL 22326547 (HHS), at n. 10 (09/25/03) (“It]he
State agency acted as an agent of CMS in this survey
process and references to CMS may be read to include
its agent”) and Community Hosp. of Long Beach v.
CMS, DAB No. 1938 (08/18/04), 2004 WL 2102876
(HHS), pp. 1-2 (“CMS and its agents (such as state
survey agencies)... ”).
The circuit court concluded that CMS was enti-
tled to rely on the allegations in the SOD’ and had no
* The Seventh Circuit’s comment that the SOD itself
establishes a prima facie case is based upon its reading of
Harmony Court v. CMS, DAB Dec. No. 1968 (2005), Medicare
and Medicaid Guide (CCH) ¥ 120803, 2005 WL 835751. Har-
mony Court, however, did not hold that the allegations in an
SOD are always sufficient to establish a prima facie case. It held
only that they will do so where the assertions in the SOD have
not been disputed by the provider. (“‘ ... CMS may make a
prima facie showing of noncompliance based on that document if
the factual findings and allegations it contains are specific,
(Continued on following page)
25
duty to investigate or test the legal viability of any of
these allegations. (App. 5-6) It likened CMS’s approv-
ing these deficiencies and imposing the remedies
without any evaluation of the facts and law upon
which they may have been based to interim remedies
which are routinely available in court proceedings.
(App. 6) The exact meaning intended by this analogy
is not clear, since the issuance of a temporary re-
straining order presupposes the evaluation of the
facts and law, based on defined legal standards, by a
neutral magistrate.
This holding, that an agency is excused from
insuring that its positions are reasonably based upon
the facts and law when it determines that conducting
such an analysis prior to acting might cause the
agency's enforcement process to lose “economy” or
“retard the correction of the [alleged] deficiencies,”
is in substantial tension with Congress’ directive in
5 U.S.C. §§504(a)(1) and (b)(1)E) that an agency’s
actions must have a reasonable basis in fact and law.
This holding by the Seventh Circuit also, by
necessity, would limit any review of the government’s
“position” to a review of the position it takes after the
litigation is underway. Such a limitation would not
comport with other court decisions construing the
undisputed, and not inherently unreliable.’”) Harmony Court,
DAB Dec. No. 1968 at Westlaw 11. (Emphasis added.)
“ How forcing providers to expend resources to correct
deficiencies that do not exist furthers CMS’s goal of protecting
resident health and welfare is not explained.
26
requirements of EAJA. See, Jowa Express Distribu-
tion, Inc. v. N.L.R.B., supra, at 1309. (“The litigation
position approach does not address what we must
conclude is at least a significant purpose of the EAJA
~— to encourage government regulatory agencies only
to take actions that have a reasonable basis in law
and in fact.”)
In deciding that an agency was excused from
determining substantial justification prior to acting
in this type of case, the Seventh Circuit reasoned that
“lijmposing interim sanctions in advance of full
investigation is a sensible procedure with familiar
analogs in the interim remedies available in ordinary
civil litigation, such as temporary restraining orders.”
(App. 6)’ Not only has this analogy never before been
used in evaluating whether the government’s position
was substantially justified, but if adopted by the
lower courts, it has the potential to create an excep-
tion to the definition of an agency’s position in
§504(b)(1)(E) which would swallow the rule.
The EAJA is a federal statute designed, at least
in significant part, to reduce or eliminate unreason-
able government action that leads to litigation. See
Commissioner I.N.S. v. Jean, supra. “The Govern-
ment’s general interest in protecting the federal fisc
* The court did not explain its characterization of the
remedies sought by CMS as “interim remedies.” Absent a
successful appeal by Park Manor, all of the remedies, including
the CMPs, would have been enforced.
27
is subordinate to the specific statutory goals of en-
couraging private parties to vindicate their rights and
‘curbing excessive regulation and the unreasonable
exercise of Government authority.’” 496 U.S. at 164-
165. Since governmental actions that do not have a
reasonable basis in fact or law are those most likely
to be challenged, EAJA also serves to reduce the
volume of litigation. A construction of EAJA which
significantly limits its reach, and which is not based
upon the language of the statute, should therefore not
be adopted without a thorough analysis by this Court.
B. The Circuit Court’s Holding That CMS
Is Not Required To Investigate Prior To
Imposing Remedies Is In Apparent Con-
flict With Principles Established By A
Decision Of Another Circuit Court.
The circuit court determined that requiring CMS
to verify the accuracy of the allegations before impos-
ing remedies would “retard the correction of the
deficiencies....” This method of analysis, which
seeks to temper the requirements of the EAJA with
the perceived mission of the agency, was previously
rejected by the circuit court for the District of Colum-
bia in Contractor’s Sand and Gravel, Inc., 199 F.3d
1335, 1339 (D.C. Cir. 2000).
6 . . ° pala .
How imposing remedies for, and requiring nursing homes
to divert resources to correct, non-existent deficiencies protects
resident health or safety is not explained.
28
In Contractor’s Sand and Gravel, Inc., the agency
initiated an enforcement proceeding against a mine
operator for failing to properly ground equipment.
Without offering any evidence that the equipment
was not, in fact, grounded, the agency argued that the
frame grounding employed by the company was
inherently unsafe. After that position was rejected in
the litigation, the agency defended the EAJA claim,
not on the reasonableness of its factual and legal
position, but on its need to act to protect public safety.
The court rejected this argument. (“The Commission’s
determination that the Secretary’s position had a
reasonable basis in law is based entirely on an analy-
sis which examines the purpose of the regulations in
terms of the overriding objective of safety in the
mine... .”) 199 F.3d at 1340.
While CMS undoubtedly does have, as its mis-
sion, the goal of promptly remedying deficient nurs-
ing home practices, the same could be said about the
numerous other federal agencies which serve to
protect public health and safety. The implications of
the holding by the Seventh Circuit therefore go well
beyond the nursing home enforcement process.
It is at least reasonable to conclude that Con-
gress was aware of the tension between agencies’
need to sometimes act promptly, and a requirement
that they verify the legal and factual reasonableness
of its position prior to acting, when it adopted the
EAJA. In opting for the requirement of substantial
justification, Congress appears to have decided to
balance these two competing policies in favor of the
29
goals embodied in the EAJA. This Court should
therefore accept this case to resolve this conflict
between the two circuit court decisions.
Ill. THE DAB’S CONCLUSION, THAT AN
AGENCY’S POSITION IS SUBSTANTIALLY
JUSTIFIED IF SOME ALLEGATIONS HAVE
A REASONABLE BASIS IN FACT AND LAW
BUT THE LARGER PORTION DOES NOT,
CONFLICTS WITH DECISIONS OF OTHER
CIRCUIT COURTS.
This Court in Commissioner, I.N.S. v. Jean, 496
U.S. 154 (1990), held that in determining substantial
justification, the position of the government is to be
viewed as an inclusive whole. 496 U.S. at 158-159.
The DAB, in applying that principle, held that CMS
could pursue numerous deficiencies and remedies so
long as it could later demonstrate that one or more
deficiencies, that could arguably support the reme-
dies imposed, had a reasonable basis. “CMS’s pre-
adjudication actions can be considered reasonable for
EAJA purposes if there are some legally sufficient
grounds for the actions regardless of whether other
allegations were made that might have affected how
CMS exercised its discretion.” (Emphasis in original.)
(App. 47)
This holding was appealed to the circuit court,
but, due to that court’s holding that CMS was entitled
to rely on the allegations in the SOD, it was not
addressed. This holding by the DAB, however, is
contrary to other established circuit court precedent
30
construing the EAJA. See United States v. Jones, 125
F.3d 1418, 1428-1429 (11th Cir. 1997); Hanover Potato
Prod., Inc. v. Shalala, 989 F.2d 123, 131 (3rd Cir.
1993); and Alphin v. Nat'l Transp. Safety Bd., 839
F.2d 817, 822 (D.C. Cir. 1988).
In Alphin, the FAA initiated a proceeding to
suspend an inspector’s certificate. It alleged a num-
ber of code violations and, as in the present proceed-
ings, the private party had the burden of proof to
show compliance. When the FAA’s allegations were
dismissed, the inspector moved for fees. The NTSB
concluded that one of the charges, the failure to
detect a cracked crankshaft, was substantially justi-
fied and would have supported the suspension sought
and it denied fees. 839 F.2d at 821-822. In reversing
that denial, the court reasoned:
Although we agree with the Board that the
cracked crankshaft alone validated the FAA’s
decision to proceed against Alphin, we can
not condone the shotgun approach used by
the FAA. Simply because the cracked crank-
shaft, if proved, could have supported the
suspension, the FAA is not entitled to tack on
other meritless allegations. Each allegation
had to be disproved by Alphin....
Alphin at 822.
The reasoning in Alphin was reaffirmed in Air
Transp. Ass’n of Can. v. Fed. Aviation Admin., 156
F.3d 1329 (D.C. Cir. 1998). In Air Transp. Ass’n all
but one of the government’s allegations had been
31
found to be substantially justified. The court never-
theless found a fee award appropriate under the
EAJA:
Virtually any government action is either
grouped with other actions or is a component
of some greater action. *** If a litigant
who has successfully challenged a govern-
ment action as substantially unjustified and
achieved a complete victory in terms of the
relief prayed cannot recover EAJA fees be-
cause of this well-nigh universal grouping,
then Congress’ enactment of the EAJA be-
comes a virtual nullity.
Id. at 1332.
Since the DAB’s decision has been published, it
serves as a basis for deciding fee applications within
HHS, and may influence the analysis of such cases in
other settings. This Court should therefore grant the
petition for certiorari to resolve this conflict and
determine the standards which should apply when
some of the government’s position is substantially
justified, but an equal or larger portion is not.
6
32
CONCLUSION
For all of the above reasons, petitioner respect-
fully requests that the Supreme Court grant this
petition for certiorari to review the decision of the
Seventh Circuit Court of Appeals.
Executed on October 19, 2007.
Respectfully submitted,
ROBERT M. HESSLINK, JR.
HESSLINK Law OFFICES, S.C.
State Bar No. 1013876
Counsel of Record for Petitioner
P.O. Box 930005
Verona, WI 53593-0005
(608) 845-3775
App. 1
495 F.3d 433
United States Court of Appeals, Seventh Circuit.
PARK MANOR, LTD., Petitioner,
v.
UNITED STATES DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH
AND HUMAN SERVICES, Respondent.
No. 06-3521.
Argued May 4, 2007.
Decided July 23, 2007.
Robert M. Hesslink, Jr. (argued), Verona, WI, for
Petitioner.
Michael O. Leavitt, Department of Health and
Human Services, Washington, DC, Donna Morris
Weinstein, Barbara F. Altman (argued), Department
of Health and Human Services, Office of the General
Counsel, Chicago, IL, Richard D. Humphrey, Office of
U.S. Attorney, Madison, WI, for Respondent.
Before POSNER, MANION, and KANNE, Circuit
Judges.
POSNER, Circuit Judge.
The petitioner, Park Manor, a nursing home, asks
us to reverse the denial by HHS’s Departmental
Appeals Board of an award of attorneys’ fees under
two provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act, 5
U.S.C. §§ 504(a1) and (4). We have jurisdiction
because, had Park Manor lost before the Board and
sought judicial review, we would have had jurisdic-
tion of that review proceeding. 42 U.S.C. § 1320a-
Tale).
App. 2
The first subsection of section 504(a) provides
that “an agency that conducts an adversary adjudica-
tion shall award, to a prevailing party other than the
United States,” the party’s reasonable attorney’s fees
unless the government’s position was “substantially
justified.” An agency within the Department of
Health and Human Services called CMS (Centers for
Medicare & Medicaid Services) is responsible for
making sure that nursing homes that receive reim-
bursement under the Medicare program comply with
the various rules that HHS has issued for the protec-
tion of the residents of nursing homes. Fairfax Nurs-
ing Home, Inc. v. HHS, 300 F.3d 835, 836 (7th
Cir.2002); Mimiya Hospital, Inc. v. HHS, 331 F.3d
178, 179 (1st Cir.2003). To this end CMS conducts
annual “surveys” (inspections of nursing homes).
Only it doesn’t conduct the inspections itself; it has
delegated the task to state health agencies that
employ nurses, nutritionists, and other health profes-
sionals to inspect nursing homes for violations of
applicable rules. Jd. at 179. If the state agency re-
ports to CMS that it has found violations, CMS can
forthwith impose sanctions, such as civil penalties
and denial to the nursing home of reimbursement for
the expenses of new residents. 42 U.S.C § 1395i-
3(h)(2). The nursing home can challenge the sanc-
tions, as Park Manor did here, and the ruling of the
first-level decider, an administrative law judge in
HHS, is reviewable by the Departmental Appeals
Board and then by the court of appeals.
App. 3
Inspections of Park Manor conducted by the
Wisconsin health agency in 2001 yielded a 123-page
report to CMS. The agency had found 28 violations.
CMS responded by imposing temporary sanctions but
later suspended them because Park Manor was back
in compliance. By the time the case came before the
administrative law judge for a determination of the
validity of the charges and the possible imposition of
permanent sanctions, CMS had dropped all but seven
of the charges. The administrative law judge dis-
missed two more on summary judgment. He then
decided that if he sustained just one of the five re-
maining charges, this would support the sanctions
that CMS was seeking and he wouldn’t have to con-
sider the other four charges. So he picked one, sus-
tained it, and disregarded the rest. The Departmental
Appeals Board reversed the ruling sustaining the one
charge, but declined to remand the case for the ad-
ministrative law judge to rule on the other four
charges because CMS had not made an issue before
the Board of the administrative law judge’s declining
to consider them.
That would have ended the proceeding had not
Park Manor sought reimbursement under the Equal
Access to Justice Act of $289,000 in attorneys’ fees.
The administrative law judge denied the claim in its
entirety, finding that all the charges brought by CMS,
including those that CMS had dropped and those he
had dismissed on summary judgment, had been
substantially justified. The Departmental Appeals
Board affirmed except with respect to one of the two
App. 4
charges that had been dismissed on summary judg-
ment, and so awarded Park Manor a portion of the
fees it sought, but a tiny portion — less than $7,000.
Park Manor Nursing Home v. Centers for Medicare
& Medicaid Services, DAB No. A-05-37, 2005 WL
3753088 (DAB Dec. 16, 2005).
The Board ruled that it did not have to review
the merits of the 21 charges that CMS had dropped
before the hearing conducted by the administrative
law judge. It ruled that way because it rejected Park
Manor’s contention that “CMS may not reasonably
rely on state survey findings in making its remedy
decisions but must investigate — or look behind -
those findings to verify their correctness before
deciding to impose remedies.” The Board said that
“this premise is inconsistent with the enforcement
process. ... Reliance by CMS on state survey findings
is precisely what this process permits and encour-
ages. Requiring CMS to investigate every facility
before imposing remedies would frustrate the goals of
protecting residents and encouraging facilities to
correct quickly any deficiencies that jeopardize resi-
dent health and safety.” Jd.
The Board found that all but one of the charges
that CMS had ultimately pursued were substantially
justified by the information contained in the detailed
report of Wisconsin’s health agency. That finding is
supported by substantial evidence and thus binds
us. But that leaves the other 21 charges, the ones
CMS dropped before the hearing. If any of those
charges were not substantially justified, Park Manor
App. 5
is entitled to be reimbursed for the portion of its
attorney’s fees that is reasonably allocable to them.
EuroPlast, Ltd. v. NLRB, 33 F.3d 16, 16-17 (7th
Cir.1994); American Wrecking Corp. v. Secretary of
Labor, 364 F.3d 321, 325-26 (D.C.Cir.2004) (per
curiam). They were dropped early in the process
initiated by the survey, but they gave rise to interim
sanctions, and Park Manor incurred attorney’s fees in
getting the sanctions lifted and argues that CMS
should not have imposed the interim sanctions with-
out independently determining whether the report of
the state agency — the source of the findings on which
the sanctions were based — was accurate.
HHS must show that CMS was substantially
justified in taking the steps it took that led up to the
formal proceeding before the administrative law
judge, as well as in the steps it took in that proceed-
ing. 5 U.S.C. § 504(b)1)E); United States v. Hall-
mark Construction Co., 200 F.3d 1076, 1080-81 (7th
Cir.2000); Roanoke River Basin Ass’n v. Hudson, 991
F.2d 132, 138-39 (4th Cir.1993); Natural Resources
Defense Council, Inc. v. EPA, 703 F.2d 700, 706-07 (3d
Cir.1983). But CMS has delegated on-site inspection
of nursing homes to responsible state agencies, and
the delegation is not only lawful, 42 U.S.C.
§ 1395aa(a), but sensible. The states impose their
own rules on nursing homes, and it is efficient to
have the same agency investigate compliance with
both sets of rules rather than to have two inspections
of the same nursing home by two agencies. The
economy achieved by delegation would be lost if
App. 6
before acting on the results of the state agency’s
report the federal government had to duplicate the
agency’s investigation on pain of having to reimburse
the nursing home’s attorney’s fees should the state
report prove to contain critical errors. That would
also retard the correction of the deficiencies found by
the state agency, here quickly achieved when CMS
imposed interim sanctions.
Park Manor argues that the state agency’s re-
ports are one-sided, nonadversary, and therefore
unreliable. It might as well argue that the govern-
ment cannot put a person to the expense of defending
against a criminal charge on the basis of a grand
jury’s indictment, as proceedings before a grand jury
are one-sided too; an indictment establishes probable
cause to believe the defendant guilty of crime, and no
more is required to justify instituting a criminal
proceeding. The state agency’s report of violations
establishes probable cause for CMS to impose interim
sanctions and seek permanent ones, and no more
is required to establish substantial justification
under section 504(a)(1). Park Manor Nursing Home uv.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, supra;
Harmony Court v. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid
Services, DAB-No. 1968, 2005 WL 835751 (DAB Mar.
28, 2005). Imposing interim sanctions in advance of
full investigation is a sensible procedure with famil-
iar analogs in the interim remedies available in
ordinary civil litigation, such as temporary restrain-
ing orders.
App. 7
Park Manor has another arrow in its quiver.
Section 504(a)(4) provides that if “the demand [made
of a party] by the agency is substantially in excess of
the decision of the adjudicative officer and is unrea-
sonable when compared with such decision, under the
facts and circumstances of the case,” the party is
entitled to the attorneys’ fees that it reasonably
incurred in resisting the demand. Park Manor argues
that since HHS awarded the government no relief at
all, CMS’s demand for sanctions must have been
“substantially in excess of the decision” and “unrea-
sonable when compared with” the decision.
Park Manor admits that this interpretation
would undercut the “substantially justified” standard
of subsection (1) by giving litigants a second bite at
the same apple under a different (but seemingly not a
more demanding) standard. The sensible interpreta-
tion, which avoids this anomaly, confines subsection
(4) to the case in which the government prevails but
the relief it obtains is meager in comparison to the
relief it had sought. American Wrecking Corp. v.
Secretary of Labor, supra, 364 F.3d at 327-28; see
Judith E. Kramer, “Equal Access to Justice Act
Amendments of 1996: A New Avenue for Recovering
Fees from the Government,” 51 Admin. L.Rev. 363,
376 (1999). By seeking excessive relief, an agency
forces the party against which it is proceeding to
incur an excessive expense to defend itself. The
proceeding is justified, so far as the party’s liability is
concerned; it is only the relief demanded that is
unjustifiable. The parallel is to Rule 68 of the Federal
App. 8
Rules of Civil Procedure, which relieves a defendant
from having to pay the plaintiff’s costs if having
refused the defendant’s offer of judgment the plaintiff
obtains a smaller judgment. The rule penalizes the
greedy winning plaintiff but is inapplicable if the
defendant wins. See Delta Air Lines, Inc. v. August,
450 U.S. 346, 101 S.Ct. 1146, 67 L.Ed.2d 287 (1981).
Subsection (4) has a similar office, and thus has no
application to this case because the entity against
which the government was proceeding, Park Manor,
prevailed.
The petition for review is
DENIED.
App. 9
2005 WL 3753088 (H.H.S.)
Department of Health and Human Services (H.H.S.)
Departmental! Appeals Board
Appellate Division
IN THE CASE OF: PARK MANOR
NURSING HOME, PETITIONER
V.
CENTERS FOR MEDICARE &
MEDICAID SERVICES
Civil Remedies CR1263
App. Div. Docket No. A-05-37
Decision No. 2005
December 16, 2005
DECISION ON REVIEW OF
ADMINISTRATIVE LAW JUDGE EAJA DECISION
In March and June 2001, the State of Wisconsin
conducted surveys of Park Manor Nursing Home
(Park Manor) and found noncompliance with Medi-
care participation requirements. Based on the survey
findings, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Ser-
vices (CMS) imposed civil money penalties and other
remedies on Park Manor. Park Manor requested a
hearing before an Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) at
the Departmental Appeals Board (Board). After the
State withdrew some of the noncompliance findings,
CMS chose to go forward based on six findings from
the March survey and one finding from the June
survey. The ALJ granted summary judgment in Park
Manor’s favor on two of these findings, overturning
App. 10
the remedies from the June survey as a result. He
conducted a hearing on the remaining five findings
and issued an initial decision in CMS’s favor, based
on one of the findings. On review, the Board reversed
the ALJ, issuing a final decision in Park Manor’s
favor. CMS did not timely pursue before the Board
the other four findings. Thus, during the proceedings,
all of the noncompliance findings were withdrawn,
not pursued, or reversed, and all of the enforcement
remedies were overturned.
Having obtained a favorable result on the merits,
Park Manor applied for attorneys’ fees and other
expenses pursuant to the Equal Access to Justice Act
(EAJA), 5 U.S.C. §504. Among other things, the
EAJA requires a federal agency to pay the reasonable
fees and other expenses incurred by an eligible “pre-
vailing party,” unless the “position of the agency” in
the underlying “adversary adjudication” was “sub-
stantially justified” or “special circumstances” make
an award unjust.
On December 28, 2004, the ALJ (Steven T. Kes-
sel) issued a decision denying Park Manor’s EAJA
application. Park Manor Nursing Home, DAB No.
CR1263 (2004) (ALJ EAJA Decision). The ALJ found
(among other things) that CMS was substantially
justified in pursuing enforcement remedies against
Park Manor. Before us now is Park Manor’s appeal of
the ALJ EAJA Decision.
As discussed below, the ALJ EAJA Decision does
not properly apply EAJA standards, is incomplete,
App. 11
and does not accurately reflect our decision on the
merits. Because of the lengthy history of this case and
other factors, we are issuing a modified decision,
rather than remanding to the ALJ. Our major conclu-
sions are:
¢ CMS had a reasonable basis for issuing the ini-
tial determinations that led to the proceedings.
¢ CMS also had a reasonable basis for pursuing a
reduced civil money penalty for the period March
22 through June 10, 2001 (even though CMS was
no longer relying on all of the findings from the
March survey). Therefore, CMS’s overall position
regarding that matter was substantially justified.
¢ By obtaining summary judgment in its favor,
Park Manor prevailed in its appeal of CMS’s ini-
tial determination imposing remedies based on
the June revisit survey — a separate matter for
EAJA purposes. CMS did not show that its over-
all position regarding that matter was substan-
tially justified, however. In particular, CMS did
not show that it had a reasonable basis for its po-
sition that remedies for the period beginning
June 11 were warranted based solely on a finding
of noncompliance that the State had withdrawn
during informal dispute resolution. Accordingly,
Park Manor is entitled to an EAJA award for the
reasonable attorneys fees and expenses it in-
curred in connection with the proceedings to re-
solve that matter (up to receipt of the summary
judgment ruling), unless “special circumstances”
make an award unjust.
App. 12
¢ None of the events that CMS alleges constitute
“special circumstances” relates to adjudication of
the remedies arising from the June revisit survey
and bars an award in connection with that mat-
ter.
¢ The ALJ correctly concluded that Park Manor
is not entitled to an award on the basis that CMS
sought excessive remedies.
Our decision below sets further procedures to
enable us to promptly determine the amount to which
Park Manor is entitled under our decision (if the
parties cannot agree on an amount within a specified
time period, as we encourage them to do). If the
parties agree on the amount, our decision will become
final on the matters decided herein. Otherwise, we
will issue a supplementary decision which, together
with this decision, will constitute final agency action
on the matters.
Case Background
This case has a long and convoluted history. We
set out here only the background required to under-
stand generally how the proceedings arose, how and
why the issues narrowed over the course of the pro-
ceedings, and what steps were taken at key stages of
the proceedings. '
' The record before the ALJ in the EAJA proceeding in-
cluded: (1) briefs submitted in support of or opposition to Park
Manor’s EAJA application, including an opening brief by Park
(Continued on following page)
App. 13
A skilled nursing facility (SNF) such as Park
Manor must comply with the requirements in 42
C.F.R. Part 483, subpart B, if it wishes to participate
in the Medicare program. Compliance is verified
through surveys performed by state survey agencies
under contract with CMS. 42 C.F.R. Part 488, subpart
E. A survey agency reports any “deficiency” (failure to
meet a participation requirement) it finds on a stan-
dard form called a “Statement of Deficiencies” (SOD).
See, e.g., CMS Ex. 1. Each deficiency cited in the SOD
is identified by an alpha-numeric “tag” relating to a
requirement in Part 483. The survey agency also
rates the seriousness of each reported deficiency by
assessing scope and severity (whether it has placed
residents in “immediate jecpardy,” caused “actual
harm,” or created only the “potential for more than
minimal harm”). Id.; see adso 42 C.F.R. § 488.404.’
Manor, a CMS “Answer’” to the application (CMS Answer), and a
reply to the CMS Answer; (2) various exhibits in support of or
opposition to the EAJA application (PM EAJA Ex. __ and CMS
EAJA Ex. ___}; and (3) the record of the merits proceeding
initiated by Park Manor to challenge CMS’s determinations. The
record of the merits proceeding includes: the parties’ exhibits
(PM Ex._ and CMS Ex. __); the hearing transcript (Tr. ___);
and the pleadings, briefs, and other related pre- and post-
hearing material listed (by number) in chronological sequence
on a December 30, 2003 document prepared by the Civil Reme-
dies Division (R. 1 to R. 92). Our record on appeal of the ALJ
EAJA Decision also includes Park Manor's opening brief (PM
Brief), a CMS response brief (CMS Response), and reply briefs
filed by both parties (PM Reply and CMS Reply).
* Noncompliance levels are denoted by letters: D, E, and F
refer to deficiencies with the potential for more than minimal
(Continued on following page)
App. 14
A SNF is subject to enforcement remedies, in-
cluding termination of its Medicare participation, if it
is not in “substantial compliance.” 42 C.FR.
§ 488.402(b),(c). A SNF is not in substantial compli-
ance if it has one or more deficiencies that create the
potential for more than minimal harm. 42 C.FR.
§ 488.301. “Noncompliance” means “any deficiency
that causes a facility to not be in substantial compli-
ance.” Id.
CMS determines whether to impose an enforce-
ment remedy on a SNF, generally after approving a
state survey agency certification of noncompliance. 42
C.F.R. §§ 488.330(a); 488.330(e)(2). In lieu of termina-
tion, CMS may impose civil money penalties (CMPs)
and other intermediate remedies to encourage the
SNF to come back into substantial compliance
promptly.’ See 42 C.F.R. §§ 488.406 and 488.408. This
scheme is based on section 1819 of the Social Security
Act (the Act), 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3.
A SNF is entitled to an ALJ hearing to contest a
federal enforcement action only if CMS issues an
harm”; G, H, and I refer to deficiencies that have caused “actual
harm” to residents; and J, K, and L identify deficiencies that
place residents in immediate jeopardy. CMS State Operations
Manual (SOM), Pub. 7, App. P, sec. V.
’ If CMS finds immediate jeopardy, CMS may impose a
CMP in the range of $3,050-$10,000 per day; for other noncom-
pliance, CMS may impose a CMP in the range of $50-$3,000 per
day. 42 C.F.R. § 488.438(ax1). ACMP accrues until the SNF has
achieved substantial compliance or its provider agreement is
terminated. 42 C.F.R. § 488.454(a).
App. 15
appealable “initial determination.” 42 C.FR.
§§ 498.3(b), 498.5, 488.330(e3). The definition of
“initial determination” includes a finding of noncom-
pliance that results in the imposition of a remedy
specified in section 488.406, a finding of substandard
quality of care that results in the loss of approval of a
nurse aide training program, and the level of non-
compliance found by CMS if a successful challenge on
this issue would affect the range of CMP amounts
that CMS may collect. 42 C.F.R. § 498.3(b)(13), (14),
and (16).
A hearing on a CMP typically requires an ALJ to
make findings on two issues: first, whether the SNF
was, as alleged by CMS, not in substantial compli-
ance with participation requirements during the
period for which CMS imposed the CMP; and second,
whether the amount of the CMP is reasonable in view
of the seriousness of the noncompliance, the SNF’s
compliance history, and other factors. See, e.g., 42
C.F.R. § 488.438."
On March 22, 2001, the Wisconsin Department of
Health and Family Services (WDHFS) completed a
standard survey and extended survey of Park Manor
(the March survey). CMS Ex. 1, at 1; CMS Ex. 3, at 1.
* Contrary to what Park Manor suggests, however, it did
not have a right to review of CMS’s exercise of discretion to
impose remedies, rather than giving Park Manor an opportunity
to correct them, nor did Park Manor’s right to appeal arise
before CMS issued its initial determinations. 42 C.F.R.
$$ 488.438, 498.3.
App. 16
As initially issued, the SOD for the March survey
contained noncompliance findings under 20 tags, two
of which we identify at this point. CMS Ex. 1, at 1.
First, surveyors found that Park Manor had failed to
consult immediately with a resident’s physician about
a “significant change” in the resident’s status (tag
F157). Id. at 1-9. Second, surveyors found that Park
Manor had not ensured that a resident received
adequate supervision to prevent accidents (tag F324).
Id. at 86. The surveyors also found that for two days,
March 20 and 21, the deficiency under tag F324
placed residents in immediate jeopardy and therefore
also constituted “substandard quality of care.” Id. at
1: see also CMS Ex. 8, at 2.
In April 2001, before CMS made any determina-
tion based on the March survey, Park Manor filed two
hearing requests. R. 1; R. 3. The first was dismissed
as premature. R. 2; R. 37. The second responded to a
WDHFS notice advising Park Manor that, due to the
substandard quality of care finding, it would no
longer be allowed to offer or conduct a nurse aide
training and competency evaluation program (NAT-
CEP).
* “Substandard quality of care” means one or more deficien-
cies (under 42 C.F-R. §§ 483.13, 483.15, or 483.25) that consti-
tute either: immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety; a
pattern of or widespread actual harm that is not immediate
jeopardy; or a widespread potential for more than minimal harm
(but less than immediate jeopardy, with no actual harm). 42
C.F.R. § 488.301.
App. 17
On May 4, 2001, CMS issued a “Notice of Imposi-
tion of Remedies.” CMS Ex. 2. This notice informed
Park Manor that CMS was imposing the following
remedies based on the March survey: (1) a CMP of
$6,200 per day for two days of immediate jeopardy;
and (2) a CMP of $250 per day, which would accrue
from March 22, 2001 until the facility achieved sub-
stantial compliance. Jd. This notice also indicated
that the alleged noncompliance with section 483.25
(tag F324) constituted “substandard quality of care,”
and that Park Manor was therefore prohibited from
offering a NATCEP for two years. Jd. at 1. Park
Manor then filed its third hearing request. R. 12.
In early May 2001, WDHFS held an informal
dispute resolution (IDR) conference regarding the
March survey findings.” CMS Ex. 5, at 2. Park Manor
submitted extensive documentation to WDHFS in
support of its presentation at this conference.
On June 11, 2001, WDHFS completed a revisit
survey (June revisit survey) of Park Manor and found
continued noncompliance. CMS Ex. 6. The SOD for the
June revisit survey cited the facility for deficiencies
* States must offer facilities an opportunity to informally
dispute adverse findings in a SOD. 42 C.FR. § 488.331(aX1).
The pendency of IDR does not toll or delay the effective date of
enforcement action by CMS. 42 C.FR. § 488.331(bX2). However,
“ti]f a provider is subsequently successful, during the {IDR}
process, at demonstrating that deficiencies should not have been
cited, the deficiencies are removed from the [SOD] and any
enforcement actions imposed solely as a result of those cited
deficiencies are rescinded.” 42 C.F.R. § 488.331(c).
App. 18
under six tags. Jd. (This included a finding under tag
F157 involving a different resident than the finding
under that tag from the March survey.) Park Manor
filed a fourth hearing request. R. 18.
On June 15 and 19, 2001, CMS and Park Manor
filed Reports of Readiness in the pending appeals. R.
15-R. 17. These reports, like similar reports submit-
ted in September, contained general assertions, but
no detailed arguments. Id.; R. 30, R. 31, R. 33.
On June 21, 2001, WDHFS informed Park Manor
that, as a result of IDR, WDHFS had amended the
March survey findings under tag F324, placed the
amended findings under tag F309, and reduced the
noncompliance level from J (immediate jeopardy) to D
(potential for more than minimal harm). CMS Ex. 7,
at 1. WDHFS also agreed during IDR to withdraw or
amend other March survey findings. Id.; see also R.
18, Att. 1. WDHFS then issued an amended SOD for
the March survey, with 15 noncompliance findings
(including one under tag F157). CMS Ex. 4; CMS Ex.
5, at 2.
On July 3, 2001, CMS issued a Notice of Imposi-
tion of Remedies based on the June revisit survey.
CMS Ex. 7. This notice advised Park Manor that
CMS was continuing the $250 per day CMP previ-
ously imposed, and imposing a denial of payment for
new admissions (DPNA) starting July 15, 2001. Jd. at 2.
The notice also said that CMS had accepted WDHFS’s
recommendation to rescind the $6,200 per day CMP
previously imposed for two days of immediate jeopardy.
App. 19
Id. Park Manor then filed its fifth hearing request. R.
20 and R. 25.
On August 2, 2001, WDHFS notified Park Manor
that, as a result of IDR, it was rescinding two find-
ings from the June revisit survey — tags F157 and
F281 — and amending one other finding from that
survey. PM Exs. 34 and 66.
On September 20, 2001, CMS notified Park
Manor by letter that it was back in substantial com-
pliance and that all remedies had been discontinued
as of July 24, 2001 (the date WDHFS conducted a
second revisit survey). CMS Ex. 8. CMS also said that
the IDR decision to withdraw the immediate jeopardy
finding (from the March survey) had effectively
overturned the substandard quality of care finding.
Id. at 2.’
Meanwhile, the March survey had led WDHFS to
levy fines against Park Manor for allegedly violating
State nursing home requirements that are similar
but not identical to the federal requirements. See PM
Ex. 54. Park Manor contested these fines, and the
resulting proceeding included a 13-day hearing before
” At this point, the following were at issue: (1) 15 noncom-
pliance findings from the March survey, resulting in the $250
per day CMP effective March 22, 2001; and (2) six noncompli-
ance findings from the June revisit survey, resulting in continu-
ing the $250 per day CMP through July 23, 2001 and a DPNA
for the period July 15 through July 23, 2001. The total CMP was
$31,000 ($250 per day for the 124 days from March 22 to July
23, 2001).
App. 20
a State ALJ. Jd. at 2. In March 2002, while the fed-
eral ALJ proceeding was pending, the State ALJ
issued a decision overturning the fines. Jd. Shortly
afterward, CMS reviewed the State ALJ decision and
the evidence developed in the State proceeding. CMS
Answer at 16. Based in part on that review, CMS
decided not to pursue some of the related federal
findings. CMS Answer at 16-17.
The federal ALJ did not issue orders setting
deadlines for exchanging and submitting proposed
exhibits, written testimony, and pre-hearing briefs
until February and May 2002. R. 37; R. 43. CMS
submitted proposed exhibits (including written direct
testimony), a witness list, and a pre-hearing brief on
July 15, 2002. The pre-hearing brief advised the ALJ
and Park Manor that CMS had elected to go forward
on only six of the March survey findings (tags F157,
F279, F309, F332, F444, and F496) and on only one
finding from the June revisit survey (tag F157). R. 44
(Brief at 3, n.3). Accordingly, CMS reduced the $250
CMP to $150 per day for the period March 22 through
June 10, 2001, and $100 per day for the period June
11 through July 23, 2001. Jd.
On August 9, 2002, Park Manor moved for sum-
mary judgment on all of the findings and remedies at
issue in the proceedings. R. 47. Among other things,
Park Manor asserted that the sole remaining non-
compliance finding from the June revisit survey — the
finding under tag F157 — had been rescinded during
IDR and thus could not be used to support the reme-
dies imposed for the period June 11 through July 23,
App. 21
2001. Jd. at 11-13, 39-43. While the motion was
pending, Park Manor filed its exhibits, written direct
testimony, and list of proposed witnesses. R. 50. Some
of the testimony addressed the findings under tag
F157 in the original SOD from the June revisit sur-
vey. See, e.g., P. Ex. 61, at 23; P. Ex. 68, at 32.
On October 8, 2002, the ALJ ruled that Park
Manor was entitled to summary judgment concerning
tag F157 because CMS had not taken the steps
necessary to overrule the IDR decision. R. 60, at 3-6.
The ALJ also ruled that no CMP or other remedy
could be imposed for the period June 11 through July
23, 2001 because CMS had abandoned its reliance on
all findings from the June revisit survey except for
tag F157. Id. at 6. As a result, there was, as of Octo-
ber 8, 2002, no longer an issue about remedies for the
period June 11 through July 23, 2001.
The ALJ also granted summary judgment to
Park Manor with respect to tag F444 from the March
survey, but denied summary judgment with respect to
the other five remaining tags from that survey (F157,
F279, F309, F332, and F496). R. 60, at 8. The ALJ
held a hearing in February 2003 to permit cross-
examination regarding these five tags. The parties
then filed post-hearing briefs setting out their argu-
ments regarding each tag. R. 83, R. 86, R. 87-88. CMS
argued that Park Manor was not in substantial
compliance with the requirements associated with the
five remaining tags, and that noncompliance with any
one of these requirements was sufficient to support a
$150 per day CMP.
App. 22
On September 30, 2003, the ALJ issued a deci-
sion upholding the $150 per day CMP for the period
March 22 through June 10, 2001. Park Manor Nurs-
ing Home, DAB CR1090 (2003) (ALJ Merits Deci-
sion). In that decision, the ALJ made findings on only
one of the five remaining tags — tag F157. Regarding
that tag, the ALJ found that Park Manor was not in
substantial compliance with 42 C.F.R. § 483.10(b)(11)
because it had failed to consult with a physician
immediately about a change in Resident 20’s condi-
tion. The ALJ also found that the amount of the CMP
was reasonable based on his findings regarding tag
F157, and therefore he did not need to address issues
regarding the other four tags.
Park Manor appealed the ALJ’s decision to the
Board. On June 17, 2004, the Board reversed the
ALJ’s finding of noncompliance with section
483.10(b)(11) and set aside the $150 per day CMP.
Park Manor Nursing Home, DAB No. 1926 (2004).
The Board did not remand the case to the ALJ to
address the remaining noncompliance findings be-
cause CMS had not pursued those findings before the
Board and because further proceedings would not
serve the remedial purpose of the regulations. CMS
asked the Board to reconsider its decision, and the
Board denied the request.
Then, on July 14, 2004, Park Manor filed an
EAJA application seeking reimbursement of about
$290,000 in attorneys fees and other expenses. Park
Manor requested an award under an EAJA provision
that requires a federal agency to pay the reasonable
App. 23
fees and other expenses of an eligible “prevailing
party” in an “adversary adjudication” conducted by
the agency unless the “position of the agency” in the
adjudication was “substantially justified” or “special
circumstances make an award unjust.” Park Manor
also contended that it was entitled to an award under
an EAJA provision that authorizes an award when an
agency makes an “excessive demand” in enforcing the
party’s compliance with a statutory or regulatory
requirement.
The ALJ denied the EAJA application in its
entirety. He found that although Park Manor was a
“prevailing party” and an eligible entity under the
EAJA, Park Manor was not entitled to an award
because CMS was substantially justified in determin-
ing to impose remedies, specifically, in: (1) alleging
that Park Manor failed to comply with the require-
ments of section 483.10(b)(11) (tag F157); (2) alleging
four additional deficiencies (tags F279, F309, F332,
and F496) that might, in themselves, have served as
a basis for imposing remedies; and (3) determining to
impose a $150 per day CMP. The ALJ also rejected
Park Manor’s request for an award on the basis that
CMS had made an excessive demand, finding that
this basis does not apply when the party opposing the
federal agency “prevails entirely” in the underlying
proceeding, as Park Manor did. /d. at 16-19. The ALJ
noted that, in any event, the $150 per day CMP was
not excessive. /d. at 18.
Park Manor now objects to most of the ALJ’s key
findings and conclusions, asserting that the ALJ
App. 24
failed to apply, or misapplied, relevant legal stan-
dards and that CMS’s pursuit or defense of enforce-
ment remedies was unjustified at every stage of the
merits proceeding. In response to Park Manor’s
appeal, CMS also takes exception to several aspects
of the ALJ’s decision.
Discussion
We begin our discussion by briefly addressing, in
section A, the parties’ dispute about the appropriate
standard for our review.
Next, in section B, we address whether the ALJ
correctly determined that Park Manor was not enti-
tled to an award as a prevailing party, as follows:
° In section B.1, we set out the prerequisites for
awarding a “prevailing party” fees and expenses,
with particular emphasis on the legal standard
that must be applied in determining whether the
agency’s “position” is “substantially justified.”
e In section B.2, we explain why we conclude
that the ALJ’s substantial justification analysis is
not adequate and why we consider it appropriate
to issue a modified and supplemented decision,
rather than remanding this case to the ALJ.
e In section B.3, we explain why we find that
CMS had a reasonable basis for issuing the ini-
tial determinations that were the basis for the
merits proceedings, even though CMS revised,
withdrew, or chose not to rely on some of the sur-
vey findings during the proceedings.
App. 25
¢ In section B.4, we explain why we find that
CMS had a reasonable basis for continuing to
pursue six findings from the March survey in the
proceeding and was substantially justified in its
overall position that a CMP was warranted based
on noncompliance findings from the March sur-
vey.
¢ In section B.5, we explain why we find that
CMS did not have a reasonable basis for seeking
remedies based on the finding under tag F157
that WDHFS had withdrawn during IDR, that
CMS’s overall position seeking remedies based on
the June revisit survey was not substantially jus-
tified, and that Park Manor is entitled to an
award for the reasonable fees and expenses it in-
curred to overturn the remedies from the June
revisit survey because there are no special cir-
cumstances that make such an award unjust.
In section C, we explain why we uphold the ALJ’s
conclusion that Park Manor is not entitled to an
award on the basis that CMS made an “excessive
demand.”
In section D, we explain why we uphold the ALJ’s
ruling denying Park Manor’s request to withhold
certain financial records from public disclosure.
Finally, in section E, we establish a schedule for
further submissions on the amount of the allowable
award.
App. 26
A. The Board’s standard of review in EAJA cases
Park Manor argues that a substantial justifica-
tion determination is a legal conclusion that the
Board should review de novo. PM Reply at 10-12.
CMS, on the other hand, asserts that the issues of
whether an agency position is substantially justified,
or whether “special circumstances” make an EAJA
award unjust, are questions of fact whose resolution
by the ALJ should be reviewed under a “substantial
evidence” standard. CMS Reply at 3-8.
The Department of Health and Human Services
(HHS) has issued regulations to implement the
EAJA. 45 C.F.R. Part 13. These regulations were last
amended in January 2004. 69 Fed. Reg. 2843 (Jan.
21, 2004). The January 2004 amendments became
effective on February 20, 2004, before Park Manor
filed its EAJA application, and both parties cited
them as applicable here.
The regulations provide that the “adjudicative
officer” who presided in the proceeding, such as an
ALJ, shall issue an “initial decision” containing
written “findings” on, among other things, whether
the agency’s position was substantially justified and
whether special circumstances make the award
unjust. 45 C.F.R. § 13.26. The regulations designate
the Board (the HHS “component that would have
jurisdiction over an appeal of the merits”) as the
“appellate authority” responsible for “review of the
adjudicative officer’s decision on the fee applica-
tion[.]” 45 C.F.R. § 13.27(a), (b).
App. 27
It is clear, then, that the Board is in an appellate
posture with respect to the ALJ’s findings about
whether to make an EAJA award. Accordingly, our
guidelines on review of ALJ EAJA decisions provide
that the standard of review on a disputed factual
issue is whether the ALJ’s decision is supported by
substantial evidence in the whole record, and that the
standard of review on a disputed issue of law is
whether the ALJ’s decision is erroneous.”
As CMS argues, there are sound reasons for us to
defer to an ALJ on EAJA issues that involve evaluat-
ing the parties’ behavior during the proceedings
before the ALJ (such as whether that behavior is a
special circumstance making an EAJA award unjust),
or on other matters with respect to which the ALJ is
best situated to make a judgment.
Park Manor argues, however, that the “substan-
tial justification” test (which we discuss below) is a
purely legal standard and not a factual matter to
evaluate under the substantial evidence test, as CMS
argues that we should. As explained below, the “sub-
stantial justification” test requires an analysis of
whether CMS’s position had a reasonable basis in law
and fact. Whether CMS had a reasonable basis in law
is a matter that we review for legal error under our
guidelines — a de novo review. Whether CMS had a
" Guidelines — Review of Initial Decisions on Fee Applica-
tions Under the Equal Access to Justice Act, http://www.
hhs.gov/dab/guidelines/eaja. html.
App. 28
reasonable basis in fact does not generally require
either the ALJ or us to determine what the facts
were; instead, the analysis focuses on whether CMS
had a reasonable factual basis, given the undisputed
facts and the evidence regarding disputed facts, for
the position CMS took. This is not a purely factual
question. Since, however, the substantial evidence
standard calls for us to defer to an ALJ’s inferences
drawn from the evidence so long as those inferences
were reasonable, even if we may not have drawn
those inferences ourselves, we similarly in an EAJA
case defer to an ALJ’s reasonable judgment on
whether there was a reasonable basis in fact for the
agency position (so long as the ALJ did a correct
analysis under the EAJA). Also, if the ALJ makes
findings of fact regarding disputed factual issues such
as what evidence an agency had available at a par-
ticular stage of the proceedings, we apply the sub-
stantial evidence standard to review those findings.
We note, however, that where, as here, a party
raises threshold issues about whether an ALJ applied
the correct legal standards under the EAJA in deter-
mining whether the agency position was substan-
tially justified, those issues are purely legal ones that
we review de novo. Hanover Potato Products, Inc., v.
Shalala, 989 F.2d 123, 127 (3rd Cir. 1993). If we agree
that the ALJ made a prejudicial legal error, then we
must determine whether to remand the case or to
resolve it ourselves, applying the correct test and
addressing any material issue the ALJ did not ad-
dress. If applying that test requires us to address
App. 29
factual disputes on which the ALJ made findings,
however, we then apply the substantial evidence
standard.
B. Park Manor’s request for an EAJA award under
5 U.S.C. § 504(a)(1)
1. Requirements for an award to a “prevailing
party”
Under the EAJA, a federal agency that conducts
an “adversary adjudication” must award to an eligible
“prevailing party” the “fees and other expenses in-
curred by that party in connection with that proceed-
ing, unless the adjudicative officer of the agency finds
that the position of the agency was substantially
Justified or that special circumstances make an award
unjust.” 5 U.S.C. § 504(a)(1) (emphasis added).
In this case, CMS does not deny that there was
an “adversary adjudication” and that Park Manor
met the requirements for award eligibility. Also,
although Park Manor asserts that the ALJ failed to
consider all of the issues on which Park Manor pre-
vailed, CMS does not challenge the ALJ’s finding that
Park Manor was a “prevailing party.” Park Manor is
therefore entitled to fees and expenses in connection
with the proceedings unless CMS’s “position” was
“substantially justified” or “special circumstances”
make an award unjust.
According to the EAJA statute (as amended in
1996), the “position of the agency” refers not only to
the “position taken by the agency in the adversary
App. 30
adjudication,” but to “the action or failure to act by
the agency upon which the adversary adjudication is
based.” 5 U.S.C. § 504(b)1)(E). Similarly, HHS’s
EAJA regulations state that the agency’s position
“includes, in addition to the position taken by the
agency in the proceeding, the agency action or failure
to act that was the basis for the proceeding.” 45
C.F.R. § 13.5(b)(1).
The EAJA does not define the term “substantially
justified.” The regulations, however, provide that an
agency’ position is substantially justified if it “was
reasonable in law and fact.” 45 C.F.R. § 13.5(b)(1).
The regulations further provide that a substantial
justification finding must be based on the administra-
tive record as a whole, and that a party’s status as a
prevailing party does not create a presumption that
the agency’s position in the proceeding was not sub-
stantially justified. Jd. However, the agency’s litigat-
ing party (here CMS) has the burden of proving that
its position was substantially justified. Jd.
These regulatory criteria reflect court decisions
on the EAJA. The Supreme Court has said that the
government’s position “can be justified even though it
is not correct, and... it can be substantially (7.e., for
the most part) justified if a reasonable person could
think it correct, that is, if it has a reasonable basis in
law and fact.” Pierce v. Underwood, 487 U.S. 552, 566,
n.2 (1988). The courts emphasize that, in performing
a substantial justification analysis, a tribunal applies
a different standard than the standard used to adju-
dicate the prevailing party’s rights in the underlying
App. 31
merits proceeding. United States v. Hallmark Const.
Co., 200 F.3d 1076, 1080 (7th Cir. 2000). Conse-
quently, the findings or conclusions that support the
decision on the prevailing party’s merits claim, and
other circumstances relevant to that decision (such as
the stage of the proceeding when it was made), are
rarely conclusive factors in a substantial justification
analysis.” Id. at 1079-80; FJ. Vollmer Co. v. Magaw,
102 F.2d 591, 595-96 (D.C. Cir. 1996). According to
one court, a proper substantial justification analysis
focuses on “‘the actual merits of the Government’s
litigating position’” and is global or comprehensive in
scope, examining “not simply whether the govern-
ment was substantially justified at the beginning or
end of the proceedings, but whether the government
was substantially justified in continuing to push
forward at each stage.” Hallmark, 200 F.3d at 1080
(quoting Pierce, 487 U.S. at 569).
Because a substantial justification inquiry fo-
cuses on the agency’s litigation position in the merits
proceeding, the context in which that proceeding
arose and was conducted may be relevant in evaluat-
ing the agency’s position. We found no court opinion
applying the EAJA to a case arising from the nursing
facility enforcement process. Based on our experience
” “Conceivably, the Government could take a position that is
not substantially justified, yet win; even more likely, it could
take a position that is substantially justified, yet lose.” Pierce,
487 US. at 569.
App. 32
with this process, we consider the following factors to
be important to an EAJA analysis in this context:
¢ The enforcement process is based on the as-
sumption that all participation requirements
must be met. Thus, the enforcement regulations
in 42 C.F.R. Part 488 authorize CMS to impose a
CMP or other remedy based on any finding of
noncompliance. 42 C.F.R. § 488.408(d)(3)i). The
goal of the requirements is to protect the health
and safety of vulnerable facility residents. For this
reason, the facility has the ultimate burden of
persuasion in an enforcement proceeding to show
substantial compliance once CMS has made a
prima facie case of noncompliance. Batavia Nurs-
ing and Convalescent Center, DAB No. 1911
(2004).
¢ The enforcement process contemplates that
CMS will usually rely on state surveys to deter-
mine whether a facility is in substantial compli-
ance and whether to impose remedies to compel
corrective action. CMS may approve or disap-
prove a state survey agency’s certification of non-
compliance. 42 C.F.R. § 488.330(a)1)(C). If CMS
approves, CMS then “imposes remedies
promptly” after “promptly notifying the facility of
the deficiencies and impending remedy or reme-
dies[.]” 42 C.F.R. § 488 331(e)(2\i). This process
is intended, by design and statutory mandate, to
“minimize the time between the identification of
violations and final imposition of the remedies[.]”
Section 1819(h\(2XB) of the Act; see also 59
Fed. Reg. 56,116, 56,156 (Nov. 11, 1994). The
process also contemplates corrective action and
revisit surveys to determine whether substantial
App. 33
compliance has been achieved. 42 C.FR.
§ 488.330(g)(4).
¢e The participation requirements seek to ensure
positive resident care outcomes and to give facili-
ties flexibility in how to achieve those outcomes.
See, e.g., 54 Fed. Reg. 5316, 5332 (1989). A facil-
ity is given an opportunity during a survey,
through state IDR, and at the ALJ hearing to
produce evidence to show that an adverse resi-
dent outcome was unavoidable.
e The hearing procedures at 42 C.F.R. Part 498
reflect the expectation that issues may be added
or eliminated as the proceedings progress, new
survey results are issued, survey findings are re-
solved through IDR or settlement discussions,
and remedies are added or rescinded.
¢ Some of the participation requirements contain
modifiers such as “significant” or “adequate” that
require judgment to apply. Even experts may
disagree on whether these modifiers apply to a
given set of facts.
¢ Evaluating compliance often involves interpret-
ing medical records, made by caregivers whose
writing may be partially illegible and who often
use abbreviations and symbols, including nota-
tions the relevance of which may not be readily
apparent until a case is fully presented and the
legal requirements have been parsed in context.
¢ Evaluating compliance may also involve bal-
ancing the goal of one provision (such as protect-
ing residents’ rights) with the goal of another
provision (such as ensuring quality of care).
App. 34
e The regulations contain a general requirement
for services consistent with professional stan-
dards of quality. 42 C.F.R. § 483.20(k\3). Those
standards, although not explicit on the face of the
regulations, often inform CMS’s judgment about
whether a facility is in compliance, but may be
disputed or raise notice questions.
e Evidence in these cases often is not direct evi-
dence but evidence from which a party seeks to
have the adjudicator draw inferences of material
facts.
These factors inform our analysis below.
2. The ALdJ’s substantial justification analysis
did not comply with applicable requirements.
The ALJ denied an award to Park Manor as a
prevailing party because he concluded that CMS’s
position was substantially justified. Park Manor
contends that this conclusion is invalid because the
ALJ failed to evaluate CMS’s position in its totality.
In particular, Park Manor contends that the ALJ
failed to consider the agency actions that were the
bases for the merits proceeding (actions that Park
Manor claims were unreasonable) and erroneously
confined his discussion to the issues addressed at the
in-person hearing. Park Manor also contends that the
ALJ inadequately analyzed whether CMS had rea-
sonable bases for seeking affirmance of four findings
of noncompliance (under tags F279, F309, F332, and
F496) from the March survey that were not addressed
in the ALJ Merits Decision. According to Park Manor,
App. 35
the ALJ EAJA Decision “merely recites the allega-
tions in the SOD” regarding these four findings and
provides “[nJo analysis of the supporting and contrary
evidence” and little or no “explanation of the ALJ’s
reasoning|.]” PM Brief at 20. Park Manor also con-
tends that the ALJ erred in failing to consider
whether CMS was justified in seeking remedies based
on tag F157 from the June revisit survey, and in
failing to determine whether CMS had a reasonable
basis for pursuing tag F444 from the March survey.
(CMS also takes exception to the ALJ’s failure to
address tag F444.)
We find that the ALJ did not do a substantial
justification analysis that comports with the statute
and regulations. As noted, the EAJA and HHS’s
January 2004 regulations define the phrase “position
of the agency” to include the agency actions (or fail-
ures to act) that were the bases for the proceeding.
The ALJ did not consider or evaluate these predicate
agency actions. The ALJ EAJA Decision quotes a
superseded provision that describes the substantial
justification inquiry as an evaluation of whether the
agency’s “position in the proceeding was substantially
justified at the time the proceeding was initiated.”
ALJ EAJA Decision at 6-7, quoting unamended 42
C.F.R. § 13.5(a). Yet, the ALJ’s discussion of CMS’s
position in fact focused entirely on the issues ad-
dressed at the in-person hearing.
In addition, the ALJ did not adequately support
his findings that CMS’s position on tags F279, F309,
F332, and F469 had a reasonable basis in law and
App. 36
fact. Regarding each of these tags, the ALJ EAJA
Decision contains a single, short paragraph that
briefly states the basis for CMS’s allegation of non-
compliance. ALJ Merits Decision at 14-16. Although
the ALJ indicated in each paragraph that his finding
was based on evidence in the record, the ALJ did not
describe or evaluate that evidence in any detail.
Given the difficulty of applying the EAJA reasonable-
ness standard, the significant amount of evidence
introduced by the parties, and the fact that there was
no previous ruling on the merits of these four tags,
the ALJ should have thoroughly explained the rea-
sons for his finding on each tag. Hallmark Const. Co.,
200 F.3d at 1080 (decision should contain an “evalua-
tion of the factual and legal support for the govern-
ment’s position”).
Another problem is that the ALJ focused only on
the evidence tending to support CMS’s position,
indicating in each instance that this evidence was
sufficient to prove Park Manor’s noncompliance. Such
a cursory, one-sided evaluation does not satisfy EAJA
requirements and gives no assurance that the ALJ in
fact considered the opposing evidence. The statute
and regulations require an adjudicative officer to
evaluate the agency position in light of the entire
administrative record, including rebuttal evidence
known to the agency. 45 C.F.R. § 13.5(b)(1); Alphin v.
National Transp. Safety Board, 839 F.2d 817, 822
(D.C. Cir. 1988).
Most significantly, the ALJ did not determine
whether CMS was substantially justified in pursuing
App. 37
remedies based on findings from the June revisit
survey. The ALJ acknowledged that his summary
judgment ruling had “affected the remedies that
remained at issue.” ALJ EAJA Decision at 19. He did
not recognize, however, that Park Manor’s successful
effort to overturn the remedies based on findings
from the June revisit survey was a potential basis for
award.
HHS’s EAJA regulations provide:
When two or more matters are joined together
for one hearing, each of which could have
been heard separately ... and an applicant
has prevailed with respect to one or several
of the matters, an eligible applicant may re-
ceive an award for expenses associated only
with the matters on which it prevailed if the
Department’s position on those matters was
not substantially justified.
45 C.F.R. § 13.5(b)(2) (italics and emphasis added). In
this context, a “matter,” for purposes of section
13.5(b)(2), could be a request for hearing on a CMS
“initial determination.” While arguably CMS made
four “initial determinations” (set out below), the
parties litigated only two “matters” on which Park
Manor was a “prevailing party.” The first matter was
the appeal from the finding of noncompliance result-
ing in the CMP for the period March 22 to June 10,
2001. This matter stemmed from CMS’s May 4, 2001
determination, which Park Manor appealed on May
5, 2001. R. 12. Resolving that matter required the
App. 38
ALJ to assess the merits of findings from the March
survey.
The second matter was the appeal from the
noncompliance finding resulting in a CMP and DPNA
for the pericd June 11 to July 23, 2001. This matter
stemmed from CMS’s July 3, 2001 determination,
which Park Manor appealed on July 12, 2001. R. 20.
Resolving that matter required the ALJ to assess the
merits of findings from the June revisit survey.
It is apparent, then, that these two matters -
having arisen from separate appeals of noncompli-
ance findings based on different surveys and result-
ing in different remedies — “could have been heard
separately” by the ALJ. Consequently, the fact that
Park Manor succeeded in overturning the remedies
for the period June 11 to July 23, 2001 was a poten-
tial ground for an EAJA award.”
CMS’s position on that matter was, of course,
that the remedies were proper. As of July 2002, this
position was based entirely on the June revisit sur-
vey’s finding under tag F157. Park Manor opposed this
position in its motion for summary judgment, contend-
ing that because the IDR decision had rescinded tag
Indeed, had Park Manor appealed only the July 3, 2001
initial determination and obtained a summary judgment ruling
disposing of the matter in Park Manor’s favor (or had the
appeals not been consolidated), Park Manor could have sought
an EAJA award as prevailing party, regardless what happened
with respect to CMS’s May 4, 2001 determination
App. 39
F157, CMS could not rely on that tag to support the
remedies. The ALJ concluded that CMS had not
followed proper procedures to overrule the IDR result
on tag F157, and therefore set aside the remedies
that CMS had imposed based on the June revisit
survey. Having obtained this favorable ruling by the
ALJ, Park Manor was the prevailing party on this
matter."
In the EAJA proceeding before the ALJ, Park
Manor argued that CMS was not justified in seeking
remedies based on tag F157. The ALJ should have
addressed that argument and determined whether
Park Manor was entitled to an award for the reason-
able fees and expenses it incurred to overturn those
remedies.
Citing Commissioner, INS v. Jean, 496 U.S. 154
(1990) and other cases, CMS asserts that an award
should not be based on a piecemeal examination of
the litigation, and that we must make a single sub-
stantial justification finding encompassing the entire
merits proceeding. CMS Response at 21, 27. In Jean,
' The Supreme Court has said that a party is a prevailing
party if it “‘succeed|s! on any significant issue in (the) litigation
which achieves some of the beriefit [it] sought in bringing suit.’”
Hensley v. Eckerhart, 461 U.S. 424, 433 (1983) (quoting Nadeau
v. Helgemoe, 581 F.2d 275, 278-79 (1st Cir. 1978)). In another
formulation, the Court has said that a party prevails when the
litigation has resulted in a “material alteration of the legal
relationship of the parties in a manner which Congress sought
to promote in the fee statute.” Texas State Teachers Ass'n v.
Garland Indep. Sch. Dist., 489 U.S. 782, 792-93 (1989).
App. 40
the Supreme Court stated that “[wJhile the parties’
postures on individual matters may be more or less
justified, the EAJA ~ tike other fee-shifting statutes —
favors treating a case as an inclusive whole, rather
than as atomized line items.” 496 U.S. at 161-62. The
relevance of that statement to this situation is un-
clear because the issue in Jean was fairly narrow —
namely, whether an EAJA award could include fees
and expenses incurred by the prevailing party in the
fee litigation. Jean did not indicate the scope of a
substantial justification inquiry with respect to a
proceeding in which the prevailing party sought relief
from multiple government actions, any one of which
was sufficient to support remedies that the party
sought to avoid by participating in the proceeding.
Some courts that have confronted these or similar
circumstances have required the government to
justify each such action and, when appropriate, have
approved a partial award relating to the unjustified
actions. See, e.g., Alphin, 839 F.2d at 822-823; Ameri-
can Wrecking Corp. v. Secretary of Labor, 362 F.3d
321, 325-26 (D.C. Cir. 2004). This approach, which
HHS adopted in section 13.5(b)(2), is consistent not
only with how courts define the term “prevailing
party” in fee-shifting cases, but also with the purpose
of the EAJA, which is “to eliminate for the average
person the financial disincentive to challenge unrea-
sonable government actions.” Jean, 496 U.S. at 164.
We do not imply here that a substantial justifica-
tion analysis must address the reasonableness of
every single argument an agency makes during a
App. 41
proceeding. Roanoke River Basin Ass’n v. Hudson,
991 F.2d 132, 138-139 (4th Cir.), cert. denied, 510 U.S.
864 (1993); Hanover Potato Products, 989 F.2d at 131
(noting that not every argument made by an agency
must be substantially justified, but that a district
court must evaluate every “significant argument” in
order to determine whether the government’s position
“as a whole” was substantially justified). The analysis
must, however, be consistent with the EAJA statute
and regulations and must provide more than a cur-
sory or one-sided review of the evidence.
Our finding that the ALJ did not perform a legally
adequate substantial justification analysis means that
we must either remand the case to the ALJ or modify
the analysis. Given the history of this case, we deter-
mined that remand would take additional time and
money, without contributing substantially to the result,
and therefore be inconsistent with EAJA goals. Thus,
we instead modify or supplement the ALJ’s analysis as
necessary to apply the appropriate standards. We also
modify the decision to include analyses of issues raised
before the ALJ that he did not address. Finally, we find
it necessary to modify the ALJ’s analysis regarding tag
F157 from the March survey to correctly reflect our
decision on the merits regarding that tag.
3. CMS acted reasonably in taking the actions
that were the bases for the proceeding.
Having founda that the ALJ did not consider the
“agency actions (hat were the bases for the proceeding
App. 42
in evaluating the “position of the agency,” we consider
those actions here.
CMS contends that it reasonably relied on the
survey findings in the SODs in taking these actions,
and that the reasonableness of its reliance can be
discerned from the face of those findings. We find
merit in this contention.
Park Manor’s right to a hearing arose when it
timely appealed the following four “initial determina-
tions” by CMS:
e The determination that Park Manor was not in
substantial compliance as of March 22, 2001 (the
date the March survey was completed), which re-
sulted in the imposition of a $250 per day CMP
effective on that date;
e The determination that Park Manor continued
to be in a state of noncompliance on June 11,
2001 (the date of the first revisit survey), which
resulted in a continuation of the previously im-
posed $250 per day CMP and a DPNA effective
on July 15, 2001;
e The determination that on March 20 and 21,
2001, Park Manor had a deficiency, described un-
der tag F324 in the initial SOD for the March
survey, that placed one or more residents in “im-
mediate jeopardy,” which resulted in the imposi-
tion of a $6,200 per day CMP for those two days;
and
e The determination, based on the immediate
jeopardy finding under tag F324, that Park
Manor had provided a “substandard quality of
App. 43
care,” which resulted (temporarily at least) in
loss of approval of its NATCEP.
As discussed below, Park Manor was not a pre-
vailing party in its appeal of the latter two determi-
nations and for that and other reasons is not entitled
to an award based on them. Thus, we examine CMS’s
pre-adjudication actions only with respect to the first
two determinations.
Given the goal and structure of the enforcement
process we outlined above, CMS’s pre-adjudication
actions are properly judged reasonable as long as (1)
the SOD issued by the state survey agency contains
factual allegations that provide a reasonable basis for
a finding of noncompliance under the relevant re-
quirements, (2) there are one or more findings of
noncompliance that are legally sufficient to support
the remedy imposed, and (3) CMS does not know or
have reason to know of credible evidence that would
undermine the legality of its remedy determination.
Applying these criteria, we find that each of CMS’s
pre-adjudication actions was justified:
¢ The determination resulting in the imposition of
a $250 CMP as of March 22, 2001. This determi-
nation was based initially on the March survey.
In the merits proceeding, CMS presented evi-
dence supporting six findings from that survey
and reduced the per day amount to $150. As we
discuss in the next section, CMS had a reasonable
basis for defending those findings in the merits
proceeding, and any one of them was legally suffi-
cient to support the $150 CMP. Together, they
App. 44
were also sufficient to support a $250 CMP. See
42 C.F.R. § 488.408(d\3) (authorizing CMS to
impose a CMP of $50-$3,000 per day for any defi-
ciency that causes the facility not to be in sub-
stantial compliance). In short, CMS acted
reasonably in issuing the determination that re-
sulted in the imposition of a CMP as of March 22,
2001.
e The determination resulting in continuation of
the $250 per day CMP as of June 11, 2001 and
the imposition of a DPNA effective July 15, 2001.
This determination was based on the June revisit
survey's findings of noncompliance under six
tags. The survey findings under at least four of
those tags — tags F250, F281, F329, and F501 —
gave CMS reasonable grounds to determine that
Park Manor continued to be in a state of non-
compliance as of June 11, 2001.” See CMS Ex. 6.
These findings in turn authorized CMS to con-
tinue the $250 per day CMP and to impose a
DPNA as well. 42 C.F.R. §§ 488.417(a)(1) and
488.408(d\3)i) (authorizing CMS to impose a
* For example, the SOD found noncompliance with 42
C.F.R. § 483.15(g) (tag F250). This section requires a facility to
provide “medically-related social services to attain or maintain
the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-
being of each resident.” The survey agency found that Park
Manor had failed to provide Resident 12 with services to help
him in the dying process. Among other things, the survey agency
found that Park Manor had not followed up on a physician-
recommended hospice referral. The surveyors determined that
this deficiency had the potential for more than minimal harm.
CMS Ex. 6, at 3-4.
a a
App. 45
DPNA for days on which a facility is not in sub-
stantial compliance). Consequently, CMS acted
reasonably in issuing this determination.
Park Manor points out that after it appealed, the
State survey agency modified or withdrew a number
of the deficiency findings during IDR; that CMS
rescinded the immediate jeopardy finding and associ-
ated CMP; and that CMS elected not to rely on other
findings. Park Manor contends that this abandon-
ment, rescission, or modification of findings and
remedies shows that the actions leading to the pro-
ceeding were not reasonable on the whole. Park
Manor further contends that in order to avoid liabil-
ity for an EAJA award, CMS was obliged to establish,
with evidence and argument, that each and every
citation and remedy emanating from the two surveys,
not just the ones it pursued before the ALJ, had a
reasonable basis. In addition, Park Manor suggests
that independent investigation by CMS would have
revealed the weakness of the abandoned or modified
deficiency citations, and that CMS was unreasonable
in not performing one before deciding to impose the
remedies it did. In short, Park Manor contends that
CMS’s failure to justify its approval of these other
survey findings warrants an EAJA award regardless
of whether CMS had a reasonable basis for the find-
ings it defended in the merits proceeding.
We reject this argument because we do not accept
its two key premises. The first premise is that CMS
may not reasonably rely on state survey findings in
making its remedy decisions but must investigate — or
App. 46
look behind — those findings to verify their correct-
ness before deciding to impose remedies. However,
this premise is inconsistent with the enforcement
process described above. Reliance by CMS on state
survey findings is precisely what this process permits
and encourages. Requiring CMS to investigate every
facility before imposing remedies would frustrate the
goals of protecting residents and encouraging facili-
ties to correct quickly any deficiencies that jeopardize
resident health and safety. (As our criteria indicate,
however, we reject CMS’s suggestion that it could
never have a duty to look behind survey findings
before acting. Accepting that suggestion would under-
cut the EAJA goals.)
Park Manor’s second premise is that CMS’s
remedy decisions constitute acceptance or approval of
each of the many survey findings in the relevant
SODs. This premise is a mistaken one because CMS
may impose a CMP or other remedy based on any
single finding of noncompliance. Regarding the reme-
dies that CMS imposed for alleged deficiencies that
were not at the immediate jeopardy ievel, Park
Manor would have us conclude that those remedies
were inappropriate or unreasonable even if CMS
showed that some deficiency findings had a reason-
able basis in law and fact and were otherwise legally
sufficient to warrant the remedies. Park Manor
points out that CMS might have chosen a different
remedy (or permitted corrective action first) but for
the survey findings that were later abandoned. Such
speculation is irrelevant for EAJA purposes, however.
App. 47
CMS’s pre-adjudication actions can be considered
reasonable for EAJA purposes if there are some
legally sufficient grounds for the actions, regardless
of whether other allegations were made that might
have affected how CMS exercised its discretion. As
discussed, there were legally sufficient grounds for
CMS’s pre-adjudication actions regarding the two
matters on which Park Manor was a prevailing
party.”
We do not wish to imply that the immediate
jeopardy and substandard quality of care determina-
tions were entirely irrelevant to the EAJA analysis.
These determinations arguably constitute two addi-
tional “matters” under section 13.5(b)(2). These
matters were pending before the ALJ as of May 5,
2001. They ended on July 3, 2001 when CMS with-
drew the $6,200 per day CMP and the substandard
quality of care finding. Because the matters were
concluded in Park Manor’s favor, an issue exists
about whether an award can be made regarding
them.
To resolve that issue, we need go no further than
to inquire whether Park Manor was a prevailing party
on the matters. A party is a prevailing party for pur-
poses of the EAJA if the proceeding was a “catalytic,
'’ Moreover, the survey findings that were withdrawn at an
early stage of the proceedings are inconsequential for purposes
of a substantial justification analysis, which ultimately must
evaluate the agency’s overall position, considering the adminis-
trative record as a whole.
App. 48
necessary, or substantial factor” in obtaining the
favorable result. Maduka v. Meissner, 114 F.3d 1240,
1241 (D.C. Cir. 1997). Park Manor did, of course,
obtain CMS’s rescission of the immediate jeopardy
finding, the $6,200 per day CMP, and the substan-
dard quality of care finding. However, CMS took that
action in direct response to the IDR results. No ruling
by the ALJ prompted CMS to take these actions, and
Park Manor was not required to submit evidence
relevant to these matters in the merits proceeding.
There is, in short, no basis to conclude that the pro-
ceeding before the ALJ was a catalytic, necessary, or
substantial factor in resolving these matters. Conse-
quently, Park Manor is not a prevailing party regard-
ing these matters, and CMS was not required to show
that its positions on them were substantially justi-
fied.
Even if we considered Park Manor a prevailing
party on these matters, however, we would find that
CMS showed it had a reasonable basis for determin-
ing that Park Manor was in a state of noncompliance
at the immediate jeopardy level on March 20-21,
2001, and therefore that Park Manor had provided
substandard quality of care. The survey findings were
legally sufficient on their face as a basis for these
actions. * There is no evidence that when CMS took
‘’ The SOD found noncompliance with section 483.25(h\2),
which requires a facility to ensure that a resident receives
“adequate supervision and assistance devices to prevent acci-
dents.” CMS Ex. 1, at 86. The SOD describes a resident whose
(Continued on following page)
App. 49
the actions, CMS possessed credible evidence calling
these survey findings into question.
For the reasons above, CMS had a reasonable
basis for taking the actions that were the bases for
the adversary adjudication.
4. CMS’s position that Park Manor was prop-
erly subject to a CMP effective on March 22,
2001 was substantially justified.
As discussed, whether Park Manor was properly
subject to a CMP effective on March 22, 2001 is one of
two matters actually litigated in the merits proceedings.
difficulty swallowing had been documented, who had recently
been hospitalized for aspiration pneumonia, and whose care
plan called for extensive one-person assistance with meals.
Surveyors found that Park Manor had failed to supervise and
assist this resident to ensure safe intake of nourishment to
prevent coughing, choking, and potential aspiration. Jd. The
SOD describes an incident on March 14 on which the resident
was observed to be coughing while having breakfast but received
no assistance with eating. Jd. at 88. The SOD also describes
other occasions — on March 19 or 20, 2001 —- in which the
resident was observed choking on liquids or showing signs of
aspiration (“tracheal gurgling”) in circumstances in which the
assistance provided could reasonably be considered inadequate.
Id. at 88-91. Based on the SOD, CMS could reasonably find that
Park Manor failed to provide adequate supervision to guard
against accidental harm from choking or aspiration and that
there was “immediate jeopardy.” See 42 C.F.R. § 488.301. The
survey finding of immediate jeopardy was, in turn, sufficient to
support the $6,200 per day CMP, as well as the substandard
quality of care finding. 42 C.F.R. § 488.408(e); 42 C.FR.
§ 488.301.
App. 50
For the following reasons, we find that CMS’s posi-
tion on this matter was substantially justified.
First, we have just discussed why the actions
that were the basis for the proceeding on this matter
were reasonable. Second, for reasons set out in sec-
tions 4a.-4e. below, we conclude that CMS had rea-
sonable bases for contending that, as of March 22,
2001, Park Manor was not in substantial compliance
with the Medicare participation requirements associ-
ated with tags F157, F279, F309, F332, and F496.
CMS also had reasonable grounds for defending the
survey agency’s finding of noncompliance under tag
F444, which the ALJ overturned in his summary
judgment ruling (see section 4f., below).
Third, Park Manor did not show in the proceed-
ing that it had corrected these six alleged instances of
noncompliance prior to the June revisit survey. Once
identified, any noncompliance is presumed to con-
tinue until the state survey agency verifies correction
during a revisit survey or by other acceptable means.
Spring Meadows Health Care Center, DAB No. 1966
(2004).
Finally, the regulations authorized CMS to
impose the remedy it ultimately sought — namely, a
$150 per day CMP - for the alleged noncompliance.
42 C.F.R. §§ 488.434, 488.438(ax1)Gi). Park Manor
did not contend in the proceedings that the amount of
this CMP was unreasonable, see R. 83, and a finding
in favor of CMS on any one of the six contested find-
ings was legally sufficient to support the CMP.
App. 51
Park Manor argues that CMS’s position on this
matter was not substantially justified because CMS
abandoned its reliance on multiple deficiencies that
supported its determination to impose the CMP. It is
true, of course, that CMS scaled back its case-in-chief
during the proceeding. On July 2002, before the
parties had exchanged evidence and witness lists,
CMS reduced the CMP and informed the ALJ and
Park Manor that it would seek $150 per day based on
only six of the 17 findings from the March survey.
CMS argues that its decision to pursue only some
of the findings before the ALJ did not render its
overall position unreasonable because a $150-$250
per day CMP did not warrant litigation over every
single finding of noncompliance. CMS Response at 27-
28.
We agree with CMS. In the merits proceedings,
CMS could have reasonably relied on any number of
the deficiencies alleged in the SOD, provided that
they were supportable and justified the amount of the
CMP imposed. The six findings that CMS ultimately
chose to pursue were, in fact, sufficient to support the
CMP, either as modified or as originally imposed
($250 per day being only 8.3 percent of the maximum
amount authorized).
CMS’s decision to streamline its case would have
given us more concern had CMS actually presented a
case on the abandoned findings before July 2002,
forcing Park Manor to mount opposition. But that it
is not what happened. After September 2001, the
App. 52
federal proceedings were held in abeyance while the
State fines were being litigated. When the State
proceedings ended, CMS reviewed the evidence
developed in the State proceeding and, based on its
review, decided to narrow its case-in-chief before Park
Manor was required to submit its exhibits, written
direct testimony, and initial pre-hearing brief. See
CMS Answer at 16. Given these circumstances, we
find that CMS took adequate and timely measures to
assess the merits of its position on this matter and to
narrow the scope of its case-in-chief accordingly.
We next discuss why we find that CMS had
reasonable bases for defending the six contested
findings from the March survey, beginning with tag
F157. Although our discussion about these findings
refers to undisputed facts reflected in the documen-
tary record, we are not making findings on disputed
issues of fact or reaching conclusions of law on dis-
puted issues of law. In other words, we are not decid-
ing whether CMS’s position was the correct one, but
only whether a reasonable mind could think it cor-
rect.
a. Tag F157
The ALJ’s substantial justification determination
was based largely on an analysis of CMS’s position
regarding tag F157, a position that we rejected in our
previous decision. Since the ALJ’s analysis does not
correctly reflect the bases for our decision regarding
that tag and contains other errors, we provide our
App. 53
own analysis of whether CMS’s position on this tag
had a reasonable basis and conclude that it did.
Under tag 157 in the March survey, the SOD
found:
Between 03/02/01 and 03/06/01, resident #20
had continued problems with an elevated
temperature, decrease in oxygen saturation
levels to 89%, fluctuations in his pulse, in-
creased lethargy, decline in ambulation and
transfer abilities, mottling to his lower ex-
tremities, and congestion with rales in his
lung fields. Between 5:26 p.m. on 03/02/01,
and 9:33 a.m. on 03/05/01, there were no at-
tempts to contact the physician. The resi-
dent’s niece/guardian of person was not
updated of [his] worsening condition until
12:36 p.m. on 03/05/01. By 1:46 a.m. on
03/06/01, [he] had died at the nursing home.
CMS Ex. 4, at 2.
During proceedings before the ALJ, CMS dropped
the allegation concerning notice to the niece, pre-
sumably based on evidence presented by the facility
that the niece had been contacted several times on
the evening of Friday, March 2, and had visited the
resident on Sunday, March 4. Relying on the opinion
of a CMS surveyor who oversaw the state survey,
CMS continued to assert that the resident showed
signs and symptoms on March 3 and 4 that required
immediate physician notification, beyond the notifica-
tion given at 5:26 p.m. on March 2, in response to
which the physician had ordered an antibiotic and
App. 54
urinalysis for symptoms of a urinary tract infection
(UTI). CMS Ex. 54, at 9913-15. The surveyor’s
opinion, submitted as written direct testimony pur-
suant to the pre-hearing procedures set by the ALJ,
stated that it was based on certain CMS exhibits.
Those exhibits included the nurses notes for the
weekend in question and a resident assessment from
January, but did not include nurses notes for January
and February (submitted by Park Manor) and do not
indicate any awareness that the contemporaneous
nurses notes evidence a conversation a Park Manor
nurse had with the resident’s physician at 9:46 p.m.
on Friday, March 2, after the contact referred to in
the SOD. The ALJ Merits Decision found that one of
the symptoms on which the surveyor relied (oxygen
saturation level) was not a significant change, but
found in CMS’s favor on the basis that the resident’s
lack of ability to ambulate, non-responsiveness (leth-
argy), and mottling were significant changes. His
decision did not mention the 9:46 p.m. contact with
the physician.
Park Manor appealed, and the Board reversed,
based on the wording of the regulation and its context
and history. Section 483.10(b)(11) gives a right to a
resident to have a facility notify a physician of a
“significant change in the resident’s status (i.e., a
deterioration in health, mental, or psychosocial status
in either life-threatening conditions or clinical com-
plications).” The regulatory history acknowledges
that nursing judgment may be involved in evaluating
what is significant for a particular resident, gives
App. 55
examples of “life-threatening conditions” (heart
attack and stroke), and supports a conclusion that the
potential need for physician intervention is a factor in
whether notice is required. The CMS surveyor had in
effect applied the regulation to mean that each indi-
vidual sign or symptom required physician notifica-
tion if it “could affect the physical or mental well-
being” of the resident, even if that sign or symptom
was consistent with what had already been reported
to the physician regarding a deterioration in the
resident’s status, and did not indicate a potential need
for additional physician intervention consistent with
exercise of the resident’s right to refuse treatment.”
The Board concluded that it was not clear that CMS, or
the ALJ, had applied a standard consistent with the
wording of the regulation and its history.”
* Contrary to what the ALJ suggests, the regulation
specifically authorizes a legal guardian to exercise a resident’s
rights, as our decision pointed out. Also, although the ALJ
questions how the requirement to notify a physician relates to
the possible need for physician intervention, CMS’s witness
acknowledged that the purpose of notifying the physician is to
obtain or alter treatment, that “no code” and “comfort measures
only” mean that a resident is to be kept comfortable and pain-
free at the end of life and that aggressive steps are not to be
taken to extend the resident’s life, and that there was no
evidence in the resident’s record that he was not comfortable
and pain-free. Tr. at 72-76. She indicated, however, that she was
unaware that the resident’s plan was for “comfort measures
only” and she questioned whether the resident was in fact dying.
Id.
For example, the ALJ stated that deterioration in life-
threatening conditions and clinical complications were “examples”
(Continued on following page)
App. 56
Applying the correct legal standard, the Board
then found that at the time Park Manor had last
reported to the physician on the resident’s status (at
9:46 p.m. on Friday) its staff was already aware of
some of the signs and symptoms that CMS later
treated as evidencing changes and had viewed those
signs and symptoms as indicating not merely a UTI,
but as consistent with an overall continuing decline
that had begun several months earlier, of a type to be
expected given his age and his pre-existing diagnoses.
The Board’s determination was limited to the facts of
the case, which included corroboration of the facility’s
nursing judgment regarding the resident’s status by
the resident’s niece, who had authority to exercise the
right to physician notification of a significant change
in status, had personal knowledge of the status, and
had nursing expertise. The Board concluded that
Park Manor had reasonably thought it was complying
with the requirement, under the particular circum-
stances of the case. DAB No. 1926, at 10-11.
While Park Manor acknowledged that mottling
on the resident’s extremities that appeared on Sun-
day, March 4 (at some time between 4:00 and 10:00
p.m.) would have been a significant change for a “full
code” resident, Park Manor relied on nursing stan-
dards for its assertion that the mottling did not
of significant changes. ALJ Merits Decision at 4. But the regula-
tion uses “i.e.,” not e.g. Even CMS did not in the merits proceed-
ing articulate the interpretation the ALJ now attributes to CMS,
nor did CMS’s witness.
App. 57
require notification for this resident, who was “no
code” and “comfort measures only.” Thus, the Board
did not take this acknowledgment to mean that Park
Manor had conceded the mottling was a significant
change requiring notice to the resident’s physician
beyond what Park Manor had already given. The
Board concluded, however, that, even if the mottling
were considered a significant change in physical
status for this resident (despite the “no code” and
“comfort measures only” directives), CMS had not
made a prima facie case that the failure to notify the
physician immediately of the mottling had the poten-
tial for more than minimal] harm. Thus, the Board’s
decision was fully consistent with past Board deci-
sions that, when there is a change that a facility
reasonably should have known was a significant
change in status, a deficiency may be found if there is
no immediate physician notification.
The issue for EAJA purposes, however, is not
whether CMS could anticipate that the Board would
reach a different result, but whether CMS’s position
had a reasonable basis in law and fact. Although we
agree with Park Manor that the ALJ misread our
decision, we conclude that CMS’s position on this tag
did have a reasonable basis in law. First, the regula-
tion requires a fact-based determination of whether
there has been a change in a resident’s physical,
mental, or psychosocial status since the last physi-
cian notification and whether that change is signifi-
cant for that resident. The parenthetical explanation
that this means “a deterioration in status in either a
App. 58
life-threatening condition or clinical complication”
and the examples of heart attack or stroke as life-
threatening conditions provide some guidance in
evaluating what is a significant change, but are not
unambiguous, particularly when applied to a fact
situation as complicated as the one at issue here.”
Second, while the Board’s decision was not, as
the ALJ found, based on a “novel interpretation”
inconsistent with the plain language of the regulation
(ALJ EAJA Decision at 12), there were no Board
decisions previously addressing the need for physi-
cian notification in equivalent circumstances. Nor
had the Board previously analyzed the wording and
" Indeed, the ALJ EAJA Decision reads the reference to
“deterioration” to mean that every “sign” of deterioration that
might signify a resident is dying should be reported. Park
Manor, on the other hand, reasonably interpreted the regulation
to mean that, where it had already consulted with a physician
about a clinical complication and other signs of deterioration
that indicated that the resident was dying, it was not required
to consult again if the signs and symptoms were the same or
were consistent with the change in status already reported to
the physician and if the facility made a reasonable judgment
that the sign or symptom did not signify a potential need for any
further medical intervention that would be consistent with the
resident’s wishes. The ALJ also refers to the resident’s signs as
“life-threatening,” but the regulation defines a_ significant
change as a “deterioration of the resident’s status in a life-
threatening condition” (such as a heart attack or stroke). While
the need for assistance in ambulating, lethargy, and mottling
may be signs of or result from “life-threatening conditions,” one
cannot determine whether they evidence a significant change in
the resident’s physical status without examining the circum-
stances.
App. 59
context of the requirement and its regulatory history
in as great a detail. Ultimately, our decision that
Park Manor made a reasonable nursing judgment
that none of the signs and symptoms on which CMS
relied constituted a significant change in the resi-
dent’s status rested primarily on our different analy-
sis of what the record showed regarding the resident’s
status prior to and at the time of the last consultation
with the physician late Friday evening.
With respect to the facts, we conclude that CMS
had a reasonable basis for its position, both at the
time of its initial determination and later." The SOD
for the March survey included a finding that the only
notification to the physician was the initial notifica-
tion of the UTI and a finding that the facility had not
notified the legal guardian, as required. As discussed
above, CMS does not have a duty to investigate the
facts asserted in an SOD prior to taking an enforce-
ment action, contrary to what Park Manor asserts.
Thus, we find that CMS had a reasonable basis in
fact for its initial determination, relying in part on
these findings in the SOD as a basis for imposing
remedies.
'" We recognize that the statement of “facts” in the ALJ
EAJA Decision contains some errors. For example, the ALJ
EAJA Decision refers to a failure to consult over a four-day
period, which is inaccurate. Also, contrary to what the ALJ
stated, the record does contain evidence about the resident’s
wishes. (See evidence cited in DAB No. 1926, at 5.)
App. 60
In arguing that CMS’s position was not substan-
tially justified, Park Manor focuses mainly on our
conclusion that CMS had not made a prima facie
showing of a potential for more than minimal harm
from the lack of immediate notification after the
mottling appeared. This conclusion does not necessar-
ily mean that CMS was not substantially justified in
pressing forward with its case on this tag, however.
CMS was relying on the CMS surveyor’s opinion on
symptoms other than the mottling as evidencing
significant changes, including what the surveyor saw
as a failure to respond to the antibiotic prescribed for
the UTI. The CMS surveyor also relied on the resi-
dent’s need for assistance with ambulation and his
lethargy, which the ALJ also found to be significant
changes in light of the fact that the resident had been
assessed as “ambulatory” at the time of his last
comprehensive assessment.” While we concluded that
Park Manor could have made a different reasonable
judgment, given other evidence in the record regard-
ing pre-existing declines in the resident’s abilities and
energy level and in light of the resident’s status at the
’* The resident assessment instrument (RAI) for January
2001 indicates that he could walk independently in his room,
but also that he needed supervision for transfers and when off
the unit, that he had fallen within the prior 30 days, and that,
for some functions, he was either totally dependent on staff or
required extensive assistance. CMS Ex. 12, at 2-3. CMS was not
unreasonable in relying on the RAI for some indication of the
resident’s status, even though we ultimately credited Park
Manor’s evidence showing that his status had declined between
the January RAI and the March events at issue here.
App. 61
last time the physician was updated on Friday eve-
ning, that evidence was not so conclusive, nor the
flaws in the surveyor’s opinion so apparent, that CMS
was unreasonable in going forward to hearing.”
Moreover, the problem with the lack of evidence
regarding the alleged potential for more than mini-
mal harm to the resident from failure to notify the
physician of the mottling was not readily apparent
without considering the resident’s wishes for comfort
measures only and evaluating whether the record
contained any evidence the resident was in pain or
discomfort.
At the hearing, CMS elicited testimony (on which
it then relied in its post-hearing brief) that it read as
” As we noted in our merits decision, the ALJ found Park
Manor’s witnesses to be credible, but not persuasive. Our
evaluation took into account that these witnesses had greater
experience in long-term care than the CMS surveyor, several of
them were personally familiar with the resident, and their
statements were corroborated by the written record and the
legal guardian. While their written direct testimony contained
information key to our decision, their statements were suffi-
ciently general that CMS could reasonably seek to test them
through cross-examination. Some flaws in the CMS surveyor’s
opinion, moreover, were not readily apparent un*:! cross-
examination. For example, on cross she admitted that antibiot-
ics do not work immediately and that the resident’s need for
help with ambulating was consistent with having a UTI (Tr. at
68-69), which undercut her view that Park Manor should have
consulted on alternative treatments for his UTI when he
continued to run a fever and that his need for assistance was a
significant change.
App. 62
showing that a resident would suffer pain and dis-
comfort from a UTI, a “high” fever, and difficulty
breathing and, therefore, as showing that the resi-
dent had suffered actual harm (although the testi-
mony, carefully read, merely indicates that these
could be associated with pain or discomfort). The
Board noted the lack of evidence from the resident’s
medical record that in fact he was suffering, and the
contrary evidence from his legal guardian, but again,
the weakness in CMS’s evidence was not so apparent
that CMS was unreasonable in going forward, espe-
cially given that CMS was not relying on this tag
alone to support the CMP.”
In its post-hearing submission, CMS also relied
on what it viewed as concessions it had elicited from
some of Park Manor’s witnesses on _ cross-
examination, including their part ownership interest
in the facility, which it could have reasonably thought
undercut their credibility. In addition, CMS sought to
** We also noted that the physician, after being contacted on
Monday, March 5, did not order any new treatment (which
undercut CMS’s position that, if called sooner, he may have
adjusted the medication for the UTI or otherwise found ways of
alleviating any discomfort the resident was experiencing). In the
EAJA proceeding, both CMS and the ALJ questioned the basis
for this finding. Page 4 of Appendix I to CMS’s post-hearing
brief, however, lists as an undisputed fact that the physician had
“issued no additional orders” after being contacted on March 5.
CMS did seek at and after the hearing to introduce evidence
that might have raised questions about whether to draw any
inference in Park Manor’s favor from this lack of new orders, but
the ALJ rejected this evidence on procedural grounds.
App. 63
introduce evidence from the transcript of the state
hearing that CMS thought undercut the testimony of
Park Manor’s witnesses who appeared before the ALJ
in the federal proceeding. Park Manor had opposed
admission of this evidence, but the ALJ deferred
ruling on the objection until after receiving the post-
hearing briefs. Although the ALJ ultimately did not
admit this evidence into the record (see ALJ Merits
Decision at 3-4), CMS was not unreasonable in think-
ing that the ALJ might admit it. While Park Manor
pointed out in reply to CMS’s post-hearing brief that
CMS had taken part of the state hearing testimony
out of context, CMS’s reliance on this evidence be-
came a moot issue after the ALJ declined to admit it.
We next turn to the other tags on which the ALJ
held a hearing. For those tags, we have, as indicated
above, determined that the ALJ’s analysis was insuf-
ficient under the EAJA. Because those tags (unlike
tag F157 from the March survey) were not addressed
in any merits decision, we necessarily provide more
detail in our analysis than would otherwise be re-
quired. Our conclusions are not, however, merits
conclusions based on the weight of the evidence.
b. F279
Tag F279 relates to 42 C.F.R. § 483.20(k)(1),
which requires a facility “to develop a comprehensive
care plan for each resident that includes measurable
objectives and timetables to meet a resident’s medi-
cal, nursing, and mental and psychosocial needs that
App. 64
are identified in the comprehensive assessment.” The
plan “must describe ... [tlhe services that are to be
furnished to attain or maintain the resident’s highest
practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-
being as required under § 483.25.” 42 C.FR.
§ 483.20(k)\(1)). The purpose of the care planning
requirement is to ensure that a resident receives the
services essential to meet his assessed needs and to
help the resident achieve or maintain his “highest
practicable” level of well-being. See section 1819(b)(2)
of the Act. The SOD made findings under tag F279
regarding the care of five residents. CMS Ex. 4, at 26-
34. CMS presented evidence regarding one of those
five residents, Resident 12. In addition, CMS intro-
duced evidence regarding a sixth resident, Resident
19. Although we reviewed CMS’s position on Resident
19 and find it reasonable, we discuss only CMS’s
position on Resident 12.” .
CMS contended that Park Manor had violated
section 483.20(k)\(1) because Resident 12’s plan of care
contained no measures to address his problem of
inadequate fluid intake. Resident 12 was 88 years old
at the time of the survey and suffered from Alz-
heimer’s type dementia. CMS Ex. 20, at 1. He was
” Park Manor’s care of Resident 19 is also at issue under
tag F309, discussed below. In its summary judgment motion,
Park Manor argued that the allegations regarding Resident 19
could not serve as a basis for noncompliance with section
483.20(k 1) because they were not set out under tag F279 in the
SOD. The ALJ rejected this argument. R. 59, at 10-11.
App. 65
5’2” tall, and his ideal body weight was 115 pounds.
CMS Ex. 21, at 3. In November 2000, he experienced
an acute episode of dehydration. CMS Ex. 17, at 4. In
response, his physician ordered intravenous fluids.
Id.; see also CMS Ex. 23, at 1 (entries for December
1).
In early December 2000, a Park Manor dietician,
Jennifer Timm, wrote that Resident 12 was “nutri-
tionally at risk” due to “potential for dehydration,”
inadequate food intake, and low body weight. CMS
Ex. 23, at 1. According to Timm, Resident 12 did not
like to be bothered by staff to eat at or between
meals, and although she had talked with him about
“drinking more fluids to avoid dehydration and
weak/confused feelings,” he “did not appear to care
much.” Jd.
Treatment notes indicate that the nursing staff
regularly encouraged Resident 12 to drink fluids.
CMS Ex. 23, at 1. The notes also indicate that he had
a strong personality and sometimes became upset or
agitated when he was encouraged to do things he did
not want to do. Jd. Timm cited his dementia and
depression as factors that impaired his willingness to
consume adequate food and liquids. CMS Ex. 21, at 3-
4,
At some point between January 6 and 10, 2001,
Park Manor completed a comprehensive assessment
of Resident 12. See CMS Exs. 18-19. The apparent
reason for the assessment was that Resident 12 had
experienced a “significant change in status.” CMS Ex.
App. 66
18, at 1 (item 8). As part of the assessment, Timm
reviewed Resident 12’s nutritional status, noting that
he had suffered a 9.2% weight loss over the past
month “despite all staff efforts to encourage increased
intake.” CMS Ex. 21, at 3. She estimated his fluid
needs at 1500 cc. per day and wrote that “[f]luid
intake is often poor, causing potential for dehydra-
tion.” Id. at 3-4.
The regulations require that a comprehensive
assessment be completed using the “resident assess-
ment instrument” (RAI) specified by the state. 42
C.F.R. § 483.20(b)(1). The RAI used here was the
“CMS-designated” RAI, consisting of three basic
components: the Minimum Data Set Version 2.0
(MDS), the Resident Assessment Protocols (RAPs),
and the RAI Version 2.0 Manual (RAI Manual). 42
C.F.R. § 483.15. In states using this RAI, a facility
must complete an MDS form (CMS Ex. 18) to collect
and report information about the resident’s functional
capacity and then use RAP guidelines to identify and
assess problems that might require care planning
(CMS Ex. 19). Id. The RAPs address a minimum of 18
“domains,” each covering a broad subject related to
patient health, well-being, or treatment; one of these
domains is “dehydration/fluid maintenance”. 42 C.F.R.
“ According to a CMS exhibit, Timm’s review of Resident
12’s status was recorded on January 4, 2001. CMS Ex. 21, at 3.
The heading that precedes her review states: “DIETICIAN
NOTE: SIGNIFICANT CHANGE IN CONDITION ASSESS-
MENT.” Jd.
App. 67
§ 483.315(f). A problem is targeted for evaluation or
assessment under a particular RAP based on certain
“trigger” conditions identified in the MDS or else-
where.
In section J of the MDS form, the facility is
instructed to note any “indicators of fluid status” that
manifested themselves during the previous seven
days (unless a different time frame is indicated). CMS
Ex. 18, at 3. One of these indicators is “Dehydrated;
output exceeds input.” Jd. Another “fluid status”
indicator is “Insufficient fluid; did NOT consume
all/almost all liquids provided during LAST 3 DAYS.”
CMS Ex. 18, at 3.
In January 2001, Park Manor completed a MDS
form as part of Resident 12’s comprehensive assess-
ment. CMS Ex. 18, at 5. In that form Park Manor did
not check the “Dehydrated; output exceeds input”
indicator in section J. Jd. at 3. Nor did it check the
“Insufficient fluid” indicator. /d.
In addition to completing the MDS form, Park
Manor prepared a “Resident Assessment Protocol
[RAP] Summary” for Resident 12. CMS Ex. 19. This
RAP summary lists the 18 RAP “problem areas”
(including “dehydration/fluid maintenance” and
“nutritional status”) and indicates which areas were
“triggered” as requiring further assessment. CMS Ex.
19. According to this RAP summary, nutritional
status was a triggered problem area, but dehydra-
tion/fluid maintenance was not. IJd., at 2
App. 68
In February 2001, Park Manor began to record
Resident 12’s fluid intake each shift.“ PM Ex. 8, at 1-
2. On February 1, 2001, Nurse Wendy Barbeln wrote
in the nurses notes that Resident 12 was showing
signs of dehydration and noted that his fluid intake
was 1140 cc. CMS Ex. 23, at 9; see also PM Ex. 8, at 1
(showing intake of 1140 cc. on the 7:00 a.m. to 3:00
p.m. shift, and 1500 cc. overall for February 1). On
February 3, 2001, another nurse wrote that Resident
12 had consumed only 120 cc. of water at supper and
that he “continue[d] to need encouragement to drink
fluids[.]” CMS Ex. 23, at 9; but see PM Ex. 8, at 1
(showing intake of 360 cc. on the 7:00 a.m. to 3:00
p.m. shift, 240 cc. on the 3:00 p.m. to 11:00 p.m. shift,
and a total intake of 1000 cc. on February 3).
On February 6, 2001, at Nurse Barbeln’s request,
Dr. Funk, the attending physician, assessed Resident
12 and “agreed that [he] was dehydrated.” CMS Ex.
23, at 9; Tr. at 172. The treatment notes indicate that
Dr. Funk instructed the nursing staff to “continue
pushing fluids” but decided not to restart IV therapy
because Resident 12 was “anxious and frustrated”
during the previous infusion and kept pulling the IV
out of his arm. CMS Ex. 23, at 9.
“ Nurse Wendy Barbeln testified that the recording of
Resident 12’s fluid intake began in January 2001, see PM Ex. 56,
1917, 20, but there is no documentary evidence that the
nursing staff gathered this information prior to February 2001.
App. 69
On March 7-9, 2001, Resident 12 had bouts of
diarrhea. CMS Ex. 23, at 10. On March 20, 2001, a
“potential for dehydration” was noted in his chart. Jd.
at 12. Resident 12’s daily fluid intake in February
and March 2001 ranged from a high of 1500 cc. to a
low of 180 cc., and in March his daily fluid intake was
consistently below 1000 cc., exceeding 600 cc. only
three times. PM Ex. 8, at 1-2.
Under the heading “alteration in nutrition,” the
plan of care in effect for Resident 12 during March
2001 addressed the problem of inadequate food intake
and consequent weight loss with specific instructions.
CMS Ex. 20, at 2. The plan of care said nothing about
Resident 12’s potential for dehydration, however. Nor
did it set any
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