Petition for Writ of Certiorari — Tomasa Gabriella Bolanos-Reynoso, Petitioner v. Department of Agriculture
Supreme Court briefApr 29, 2026
Ask Donna
What actually matters in this document.
Text
No. ___
In the Supreme Court of the United States
TOMASA GABRIELLA BOLANOS-REYNOSO,
Petitioner,
v.
DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE,
Respondent.
___________________________________
On Petition for Writ of Certiorari to the United
States Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit
____________________________________
PETITION FOR WRIT OF CERTIORARI
_____________________________________
SEAN M. AASEN
ADRIAN F. SNEAD
PORTER WRIGHT MORRIS
& ARTHUR LLP
2020 K St., NW, Suite 600
Washington, D.C. 20006
PETER E. MINA
THE MINA FIRM PLLC
1717 K. Street NW
Suite 900
Washington, D.C. 20006
MOLLY GASTON*
Counsel of Record
GASTON & COONEY PLLC
1455 Pennsylvania Ave NW
Suite 400
Washington, D.C. 20004
202.657.0012
mollygaston@gastoncooney.com
*Admitted only in Virginia;
practicing law in the District of
Columbia under the supervision
of lawyer in firm who is member
of good standing of the D.C. Bar.
QUESTION PRESENTED
This case presents a question of great importance
to the prevention of waste, fraud, and abuse in the
federal government, and to whether federal civil
servants can have confidence that if they blow the
whistle on wrongdoing in the workplace, the Merit
Systems Protection Board and courts of appeals will
fairly consider all their timely-made claims and afford
them the process protections that Congress intended.
Congress enacted the Whistleblower Protection
Act to promote government integrity and efficiency by
empowering federal employees to report any
instances of waste, fraud, and abuse free of fear of
reprisal. The Act specifies two categories of protected
disclosures for which a federal employee cannot be
retaliated against: (i) “any violation of any law, rule,
or regulation” and (ii) “gross mismanagement, a gross
waste of funds, an abuse of authority, or a substantial
and specific danger to public health or safety.” U.S.
Code § 2302(b)(8)(A)(i)-(ii).
Petitioner, a former federal civilian employee,
made protected disclosures regarding financial
improprieties that she reasonably believed evidenced
both of these categories, but the MSPB and Federal
Circuit analyzed petitioner’s claim only under §
2302(b)(8)(i)—failing to consider her (b)(8)(ii) claim—
and ruled that she did not have a reasonable belief,
on that basis alone, to make her disclosures.
The question presented is:
Whether a federal civilian employee who makes a
timely and valid disclosure premised on both
categories enumerated in 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8) is
entitled to a Merit Systems Protection Board decision
on both categories.
II
PARTIES TO THE PROCEEDING AND
RULE 29.6 STATEMENT
Petitioner Tomasa Gabriella Bolanos-Reynoso was
plaintiff-appellant in all proceedings below. She is an
individual and has no parent corporation or stock
ticker symbol.
Respondent Department of Agriculture was
respondent in all proceedings below. It is an agency of
the Executive Branch and has no parent corporation
or stock ticker symbol.
RELATED PROCEEDINGS
United States Merit Systems Protection Board:
Tomasa Gabriella Bolanos-Reynoso v.
Department of Agriculture,
Nos. DC-0432-20-0011-I-6,
DC-1221-20-0317-W-5
United States Court of Appeals (Fed. Cir.)
Tomasa Gabriella Bolanos-Reynoso v.
Department of Agriculture,
No. 23-2344
III
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Opinions Below…………………………………………..1
Jurisdiction……………………………………………….1
Statutory Provisions Involved…………………………1
Statement of the Case…………………………………..1
A. Legal Background………………………………..5
B. Factual and Procedural Background………….8
Reasons for Granting the Petition…………………..12
I. The Decision Below is Wrong………………….12
II. This Case is an Ideal Vehicle
Because Petitioner’s Denial of Fair
Process is Emblematic of the Injustice
Whistleblowers Face, and the Failure
to Consider Her Claim of Gross
Mismanagement is Clear and
Straightforward…………………………………….16
III. The Question Presented
Warrants Review Because it Holds
Implications for Whistleblowers
Throughout the Federal Government…………..18
Conclusion………………………………….……………21
APPENDIX A:
Federal Circuit Court of Appeals
Judgment (November 6,
2025)………………………..…....1a
APPENDIX B:
Merit Systems Protection Board
Initial Decision (June 30,
2023)………………………...……3a
IV
APPENDIX C:
Merit Systems Protection Board
Jurisdictional Decision (March
29, 2022)………………………120a
APPENDIX D:
Federal Circuit Court of Appeals
Order (Jan. 29, 2026)…….…145a
APPENDIX E:
5 U.S.C. § 2302………………147a
APPENDIX F:
Petitioner’s Office of Special
Counsel Complaint (Nov. 23,
2017)………………………..…148a
V
TABLE OF AUTHORITIES
Cases
Delgado v. MSPB,
880 F.3d 913 (8th Circuit 2018)……………….19-20
Flynn v. United States SEC
877 F.3d 200 (4th Cir. 2017)………………..….…15
Johnson v. MSPB
518 F.3d. 905 (Fed. Cir. 2008)………………..…....7
Lachance v. White,
174 F.3d 1378 (Fed. Cir. 1999)……………..….8, 17
Schnell v. Dep’t of the Army,
2010 M.S.P.B. 67 (2010)……………………….……8
Spithaler v. Office of Pers. Mgmt,
1 M.S.P.R. 587 (Feb. 15, 1980)……………………15
Statutes and Regulations
5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8), (8)(A)………………1, 7, 8, 12, 20
5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8)(i)………2, 3, 7, 11, 12, 13, 15, 16
5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8)(ii)…………...…2, 3, 7, 11, 12, 13
5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(9)……………………………………16
5 U.S.C. § 2302(f)(1)……………………………………..7
5 U.S.C. § 2302(f)(1)(B)………………………………....7
5 U.S.C. § 4302…………………………………………...9
5 C.F.R. 1201.111……………………………………….15
5 C.F.R. 1201.118…………………………………….....18
USDA DR 4040-430……………………………………..9
VI
Other Authorities
11 JOURNALS OF THE
CONTINENTAL CONGRESS, 1
774–1778 ………………………….………….……….5
135 Cong. Rec. 565 (1989)……………………………....5
135 Cong. Rec. 566 (1989)……………………………….6
2135 Cong. Rec. 564 (1989)…………………………..…2
Congressional Research Service,
The Whistleblower Protection Act:
A Legal Overview (Dec. 30, 2024)…………...…..6-7
House Committee on Oversight &
Government Reform, Hrg., “Examining
Sexual Harassment and Gender
Discrimination at the U.S.
Department of Agriculture,”
Hrg. Tr. Serial No. 114-172 (Dec. 1, 2016)…….…9
S. Res. 202 (113th Congress (2013-2014))…….…..….6
S. Rep. No. 112-155 (2012) ……………………………..6
S. Rep. No. 115-229 (2018)……………….…….......7, 19
PETITION FOR A WRIT OF CERTIORARI
OPINIONS BELOW
The opinion of the court of appeals (App. 1a) is
available at 2025 U.S. App. LEXIS 29306. The order
of the court of appeals denying rehearing (App. 145a)
is unreported. The decision of the Merit Systems
Protection Board (App. 3a) is available at 2023 MSPB
LEXIS 3406.
JURISDICTION
The judgment of the court of appeals was entered
on November 6, 2025. The court of appeals denied a
timely petition for rehearing en banc on January 29,
2026. The jurisdiction of this Court is invoked under
28 U.S.C. § 1254(1).
STATUTORY PROVISIONS INVOLVED
Pertinent statutory provisions are reproduced at
App. 147a.
STATEMENT OF THE CASE
This case presents a question of great importance
that warrants this Court’s review: whether a federal
civilian employee who makes a timely and valid
disclosure premised on both categories enumerated in
5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8) is entitled to a Merit Systems
Protection Board decision on both categories.
Congress enacted the Whistleblower Protection
Act in 1989 to safeguard public monies and ensure the
government acts responsibly with the public’s trust by
encouraging federal employees to report waste, fraud,
abuse, illegality, and gross mismanagement
2
throughout the federal government.1 To encourage
federal employees to come forward and to ensure that
employees could do so without fear of reprisal, the
WPA prohibits personnel actions taken against
whistleblowers when an employee has a “reasonable
belief” that he or she has disclosed evidence of “(i) any
violation of any law, rule, or regulation, or (ii) gross
mismanagement, a gross waste of funds, an abuse of
authority, or a substantial and specific danger to
public health or safety.” 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8)(A)(i)(ii).
For the WPA’s protections to be meaningful,
federal employees must have confidence that if they
take the risk of reporting evidence of wrongdoing or
mismanagement, the system for processing their
disclosure—including the Office of Special Counsel
(OSC), Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB), and
courts of appeals—will provide them fair
consideration rather than cursory review or
hypertechnical retrospective scrutiny. In the decades
since the WPA’s passage, however, Congress has
repeatedly amended the law to reiterate its broad
protections for whistleblowers and in doing so, has
repudiated MSPB and Federal Circuit for
insufficiently
protecting
whistleblowers
by
interpreting and enforcing the law and regulations
unfavorably to them, at adds with the letter and spirit
of the law. By consistently and clearly stating its
1 2135 Cong. Rec. 564 (1989) (statement of Sen. Carl Levin, citing
“two separate surveys in 1980 and 1983 [that] found that an
astonishing 70 percent of the Federal employees with knowledge
of fraud, waste, and abuse did not report it and that the
percentage of employees who did not report government
wrongdoing because of fear of reprisal rose dramatically from 20
percent in 1980 to 37 percent in 1983”).
3
intent to protect the ability of whistleblowers to come
forward without fear of reprisal, Congress has carried
on a commitment to accountability dating back to the
Continental Congress.
Petitioner had dutifully served as a federal
employee for nearly 17 years in accounting and
auding roles in the Department of Defense Office of
the Inspector General, the Department of Homeland
Security, and the U.S. Department of Agriculture’s
(USDA) Office of Chief Financial Officer when she
earned a position in the Office of Assistant Secretary
for Civil Rights (OASCR) at USDA. Once there,
petitioner discovered fiscal mismanagement and
potentially illegal accounting practices, and she
immediately raised her concerns—first with her
supervisor, then to the USDA’s Offices of General
Counsel and Inspector General, and ultimately to
OSC. Regarding her concerns, petitioner made
protected disclosures that she reasonably believed
evidenced both categories under the WPA: (i)
violations of law, rule, or regulation, and (ii) gross
mismanagement. 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8)(A)(i)-(ii).
Almost
immediately,
she
suffered
adverse
employment actions, including her first ever
unsatisfactory performance rating and a proposal to
remove her from federal service. Recognizing this as
reprisal for her disclosures, petitioner followed the
appropriate process and sought relief from the OSC,
MSPB, and Federal Circuit.
Although petitioner explicitly asserted both WPA
disclosure categories in her complaints to OSC,
contrary to law and regulation, the MSPB analyzed
only the first—whether petitioner made a protected
disclosure of a violation of law, rule, or regulation—
and determined that petitioner failed to prove that
4
she had a reasonable belief that she made a disclosure
of this first category.
The Federal Circuit
compounded the MSPB’s error in failing to consider in
any way petitioner’s disclosures of gross
mismanagement or conduct a full analysis of
petitioner’s claims by summarily affirming without
an opinion and denying en banc review. During the
pendency of petitioner’s appeal, a senior OASCR
official responsible for contracts pled guilty to
conspiracy and wire fraud related to the very
contracts that petitioner had named in her
disclosures—crimes made possible by the fiscal
mismanagement that prompted petitioner to blow the
whistle and making plain petitioner’s reasonable
belief that she was disclosing both violations of law
and gross mismanagement.
Petitioner’s case is an ideal vehicle for the Court’s
review. Like many whistleblowers, petitioner has
faced considerable obstacles in pursuing a retaliation
claim over a period of several years and has failed to
receive fair process from either the MSPB or the
Federal Circuit. Moreover, this Court is rarely
presented with a case in which a petitioner’s
whistleblower claims have been vindicated as this
petitioner’s have. Except at this Court, her case is
unreviewable, notwithstanding MSPB’s errors and
material new facts that were not available during her
MSPB case.
By granting certiorari, the Court could
demonstrate to petitioner here and future
whistleblowers that the MSPB must give full and fair
consideration and protection to federal employees
who report waste, fraud, abuse, and gross
mismanagement. This message must be clear and
unequivocal to address the MSPB’s error in failing
5
entirely to consider one of petitioner’s claims,
arbitrarily limiting the bases under which the law
should protect her. Ultimately, unlike some errors in
administration of the WPA that Congress has
previously addressed through legislation, no
amendment can force the MSPB and Federal Circuit
to follow the law and properly consider all of
petitioner’s claims. Only this Court can do so.
A. Legal Background
1. The duty of public servants to protect
government integrity through reporting misconduct
is so deeply rooted in our Nation’s traditions that
Congresses dating back to the 1770s recognized the
vital role that whistleblowers play in identifying and
preventing waste, fraud, abuse, and mismanagement
throughout the federal government.2 In 1989,
Congress enacted the Whistleblower Protection Act
(WPA) expressly to protect such federal employees.
The
legislation’s
sponsors
recognized
that
whistleblowers represent an “important check on
fraud and waste in our Government programs by
identifying potential problems and abuses at an early
stage,” 135 Cong. Rec. 565 (1989) (statement of Sen.
Levin) and noted that without appropriate protection,
“the vast majority of employees choose not to disclose
2 11 JOURNALS OF THE CONTINENTAL CONGRESS, 1774–
1778, at 732 (Worthington Chauncey Ford ed. 1908) (“Resolved,
That it is the duty of all persons in the service of the United
States, as well as all other inhabitants thereof, to give the
earliest information to Congress or other proper authority of any
misconduct, frauds or misdemeanors committed by any officers
or persons in the service of these states, which may come to their
knowledge.”); see also S. Res. 202 (113th Congress (2013-2014)):
A Resolution Designating July 30, 2013, as “National
Whistleblower Appreciation Day.”
6
the wrongdoing they see.” 135 Cong. Rec. 566 (1989)
(statement of Sen. Grassley). Through the WPA,
Congress prohibited employers in the federal
government from taking or failing to take personnel
actions against whistleblowers for their disclosures.
In the ensuing two decades, Congress amended
the WPA—and more than once specified that it was
doing so in part because it believed that the Merit
Systems Protection Board and the Federal Circuit
were not properly considering whistleblowers’ claims
in the expansive way Congress envisioned. The 1994
amendments to the WPA “were designed, in part, to
address a series of . . . decisions by the MSPB and the
Federal Circuit that Congress deemed inconsistent
with the intent of the 1989 Act.” See S. Rep. No. 112155, at 3 (2012). In 2012, Congress’s amendments to
the WPA through the Whistleblower Protection
Enhancement Act (WPEA) cited a need to strengthen
protections for whistleblowers—and again faulted the
Federal Circuit. See id. at 1-2 (2012) (“Unfortunately,
federal whistleblowers have seen their protections
diminish in recent years, largely as a result of a series
of decisions by the [Federal Circuit] . . . Specifically,
the Federal Circuit has wrongfully accorded a narrow
definition to the type of disclosure that qualifies for
whistleblower protection.”). Enhancements to the
WPA through the WPEA included emphasis that
valid disclosures included “any” violation of law, rule,
or regulation, or gross mismanagement; that a
disclosure could be made to a supervisor or person
who participated in the activity being disclosed; and
that disclosures included those revealing information
previously disclosed. See Congressional Research
Service, The Whistleblower Protection Act: A Legal
7
Overview (Dec. 30, 2024); see also 5 U.S.C. §
2302(f)(1), 5 U.S.C. § 2302(f)(1)(B).
In 2018, Congress passed the All Circuit Review
Act, which made permanent a previously temporary
authority for the appeal of MSPB whistleblower
reprisal decisions to any court of appeals. See S. Rep.
115-229 at 1 (2018). Previously, the Federal Circuit
had held exclusive jurisdiction, and in authorizing
jurisdiction in other courts of competent jurisdiction,
Congress found that because of the Federal Circuit’s
unique jurisdiction, “no split in the circuits can ever
occur, and thus, federal employees are denied the
most important single procedure which holds appeals
court judges reviewable and accountable.” Id.
(internal citations omitted).
2. The WPA makes it unlawful for federal
employees in positions of authority to “take or fail to
take, or threaten to take or fail to take, any personnel
action against any employee or applicant for
employment” because of any disclosure the employee
or applicant has made which the employee or
applicant “reasonably believes evidences—(i) any
violation of any law, rule, or regulation, or (ii) gross
mismanagement, a gross waste of funds, an abuse of
authority, or a substantial and specific danger to
public health or safety.” 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8)(A).
3. To establish a claim of whistleblower
retaliation, the employee “must establish, by a
preponderance of the evidence, that a protected
disclosure was a contributing factor in an adverse
personnel action.” Johnson v. MSPB, 518 F.3d. 905,
909 (Fed. Cir. 2008). A protected disclosure, pursuant
to Section 2302(b)(8)(A)(i)-(ii), includes any disclosure
that the employee reasonably believes evidences
either “any violation of any law, rule, or regulation”
8
or “gross mismanagement, a gross waste of funds, an
abuse of authority, or a substantial and specific
danger to public health or safety.” A whistleblower
“need not prove that the disclosure actually
established one of the types of wrongdoing listed
under section 2302(b)(8)(A),” Schnell v. Dep’t of the
Army, 2010 M.S.P.B. 67, P19 (2010) (emphasis
added), but only that “a disinterested observer with
knowledge of the essential facts known to and readily
ascertainable by the employee [could] reasonably
conclude that the actions of the government evidence”
a protected disclosure. Lachance v. White, 174 F.3d
1378, 1381 (Fed. Cir. 1999).
B. Factual and Procedural Background
1. Petitioner served for almost 20 years in various
positions in which she dedicated herself to ensuring
the efficient and honest operation of the federal
government. She held roles in the Department of
Defense’s Office of the Inspector General and as an
auditor and program manager at the Department of
Homeland Security before beginning work at the
Department of Agriculture (USDA) in 2010. C.A. App.
869-870. In 2016, petitioner applied for and received
a position in the USDA’s Office of the Assistant
Secretary for Civil Rights (OASCR); in that role, as
Director of the Program Planning and Accountability
Division (PPAD), petitioner’s duties focused on the
office’s budgetary functions, including ensuring the
proper obligation of funds and payment of expenses.
App. 5a-6a.
When Petitioner joined OASCR, the office had
been the subject of documented incidents of
mismanagement and violations of law, policy, and
regulation—including inquiries by the Office of
9
Special Counsel, the USDA Office of Inspector
General, and Congress. See, e.g., C.A. App. 163-199;
House Committee on Oversight & Government
Reform, Hrg., “Examining Sexual Harassment and
Gender Discrimination at the U.S. Department of
Agriculture,” Hrg. Tr. Serial No. 114-172 (Dec. 1,
2016). Petitioner understood that she was hired to
lead PPAD in part to help “clean up” OASCR’s
financial problems. C.A. App. 874 at 59:12-60:11.
During her review of operations as the new PPAD
Director, Petitioner developed concerns about the
legality and propriety of various practices in the office
and brought them to the attention of her immediate
supervisor, the Acting Assistant Secretary for Civil
Rights. Over the course of April, May, and June 2017,
petitioner raised concerns “regarding alleged fiscal
mismanagement” in OASCR with her direct
supervisors. App. 130a. Shortly thereafter, on October
30, 2017, petitioner received a performance
evaluation rating her as Unacceptable, and placing
her on a Performance Improvement Plan. App. 29a.
Contrary to federal law and agency regulation, the
evaluation and PIP were issued to petitioner by a new
supervisor, whose assignment to her petitioner
learned of the day he issued the documents. See 5
U.S.C. § 4302; USDA DR 4040-430; Dkt. No. 59-2 at
6, Case No. 23-2433 (Fed. Cir. Oct. 22, 2024). Up until
that date, petitioner had received only Superior or
Outstanding performance ratings throughout her
work in the government. C.A. App. 1044.
At the conclusion of the PIP, USDA sought to
remove petitioner for “unacceptable performance.”
App. 35a-36a. Ultimately, the agency’s deciding
official sustained the charge of unacceptable
10
performance but mitigated the penalty to a demotion
and reassignment. App. 39a.
2. Petitioner filed a complaint of whistleblower
reprisal with the Office of Special Counsel on
November 20, 2017, alleging that she had made
protected disclosures of “various improper spending
and contractual practices” at OASCR. App. 40a; see
also Dkt. No. 59-2 at 6, Case No. 23-2433 (Fed. Cir.
Oct. 22, 2024). The reprisal that petitioner reported
included the performance rating and PIP; the
improper assignment of a new supervisor for the PIP
process; and harassment, bullying, and oppression by
her managers. App. at 40a; Dkt. No. 59-2, Case No.
23-2433 (Fed. Cir. Oct. 22, 2024). She also filed a
disclosure with OSC alleging financial improprieties
in OASCR on November 23, 2017. App. 148a-162a.
Petitioner timely filed an appeal of her demotion
on October 4, 2019, and alleged whistleblower
reprisal. App. 40a. The MSPB docketed an appeal of
petitioner’s original whistleblower reprisal claim on
December 19, 2019, because it had been more than
180 days since her OSC complaint. App. 40a.
On March 29, 2022, the MSPB issued an order
finding that petitioner had made a nonfrivolous
allegation that she had made protected disclosures of
“financial improprieties in April, May, and June of
2017,” and that petitioner had made a nonfrivolous
allegation that her disclosures were a contributing
factor in her performance rating, PIP, and proposed
removal. App. 40a-41a; see also App. 120a-144a.
Petitioner’s appeals were joined and the MSPB held a
hearing on August 8-10, 2022. App. 42a.
On June 30, 2023, the MSPB issued an initial
decision affirming appellant’s demotion and denying
her request for corrective action. App. 3a-4a. Among
11
other errors, the MSPB’s decision relied on analysis of
only whether petitioner’s disclosures evidenced a
reasonable belief of “any violation of any law, rule, or
regulation,” under 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8)(A)(i), and not
whether petitioner’s disclosures also or instead
evidenced
a
reasonable
belief
of
“gross
mismanagement” under Section 2302(b)(8)(A)(ii)—
despite the fact that petitioner explicitly asserted
both disclosure categories in her complaints to OSC.
App. 148a, 164a.
Ultimately, petitioner’s concerns about fiscal
mismanagement in OASCR proved well founded.
During the pendency of petitioner’s appeal, Kirk
Perry, the staff member whom petitioner succeeded
but who remained a senior manager in OASCR during
petitioner’s tenure, was indicted and pled guilty to
wire fraud and conspiracy charges related to
mismanagement and fraud at OASCR from 2015 to
2022. See Dkt. No. 72 at 27-31, Case No. 23-2433 (Fed.
Cir. May 14, 2025). Notably, one of petitioner’s
disclosures of wrongdoing or mismanagement at
OASCR was her concern about improper budget
augmentation related to Perry’s knowledge “of
additional funds that will be available through the
Panum contract,” Dkt. No. 59-2 at 7, Case No. 23-2433
(Fed. Cir. Oct. 22, 2024). Petitioner also described
before the MSPB that she was concerned that her
supervisor and Perry were “facetiously claiming that
certain employees worked on reimbursable projects in
order to ‘put money back into’ the appropriated
funds.”” App. 55a. Petitioner’s disclosures were on the
mark: according to the government’s sentencing
memorandum in his criminal case, Perry’s crimes
involved helping a relative secure a no-show position
with Panum, the very OASCR contractor petitioner
12
named in her disclosure, and Perry approved invoices
for work the relative never did. See Dkt. No. 53 at 203,
Case No. 24-cr-223 (D.D.C. Nov. 7, 2025), ECF No. 53
at 2-3.
3. In addition to her other claims that the MSPB
had erred, petitioner raised the newly discovered
facts of Perry’s offenses with the Federal Circuit
because they further supported her reasonable belief
that her disclosures had evidenced both violations of
law and gross mismanagement.
The court of appeals affirmed without a written
opinion. App. at 1a.
The court of appeals denied rehearing en banc.
App. at 145a.
REASONS FOR GRANTING THE PETITION
I.
THE DECISION BELOW IS WRONG
Among other errors in considering petitioner’s
claims, the MSPB failed to properly or thoroughly
analyze whether petitioner had a reasonable belief
that her disclosures evidenced violations of both
Sections 2302(b)(8)(A) and instead analyzed only
whether she had a reasonable belief that her
disclosures evidenced any “violation of law, rule, or
regulation.” App. 44a. Because petitioner had made
disclosures that she reasonably believed evidenced
both (i) violations of law, rule, or regulation, and (ii)
of gross mismanagement, the MSPB’s failure to
consider
her
gross
mismanagement
claims
constitutes a failure to apply the WPA as Congress
intended.
Petitioner asserted that she reasonably believed
her disclosures evidenced both violations of law and
of
gross
mismanagement
under
Section
13
2302(b)(8)(A)(i) and 2302(b)(8)(A)(ii). App. at 148a (“I
am reaching out to the Office of Special Counsel
compelled to disclose the information below because I
do not agree with the actions by management and I
see the following actions as violating Federal law,
rule, or regulation; gross mismanagement; gross
waste of funds; and an abuse of authority”) (emphasis
added). And by their nature, the issues that Petitioner
raised with OSC reasonably constitute either or both
potential violations of law, rule, or regulations, and
gross mismanagement. From the beginning,
petitioner’s claims to the OSC included “concerns
with the spending and contractual practices” of
OASCR and “improperly augmenting OASCR’s
appropriation.” Dkt. No. 59-2 at 7, Case No. 23-2433
(Fed. Cir. Oct. 22, 2024). At that early date, petitioner
raised Perry’s “extreme influence on PPAD staff” and
the fact that when petitioner expressed her concerns
to her supervisor and Perry, she had been
dismissively told the Perry had knowledge of
“additional funds that will be available” through a
contact. Id. at 5, 7. Petitioner further raised concerns
about conflicts of interest, about “the review,
approval, and payment of invoices” with contractors,
and end-of-year general ledger adjustments for which
the “supporting documentation are invoices where
sometime the names of employees are not listed, or a
case number of the investigation is not cited.” App. at
149a.
Although the MSPB’s decision correctly cited and
recognized that a protected disclosure includes both a
Section 2302(b)(8)(A)(i) violation of law, rule, or
regulation,
and
2302(b)(8)(A)(ii)
gross
mismanagement, it then analyzed petitioner’s
disclosures only through the lens of a potential
14
violation of law, rule, or regulation. App. 44a-64a.
Ultimately, the MSPB determined that appellant
failed to establish that she had a reasonable belief: “a
reasonable person in her position would not have
believed she was disclosing a violation of law, rule, or
regulation with respect to any of her alleged
disclosures.” App. at 64a. Notably, in so doing, the
MSPB’s decision engaged in a highly technical and
detailed discussion of whether petitioner’s claims
reasonably constituted violations of law, rule, or
regulation—meaning that it should have, and likely
could have, reached a different conclusion when
assessing whether the same disclosures constituted
“gross mismanagement.” See, e.g., App. at 46a-48a,
55a, 59a (dismissing as potential violations of law,
rule, or regulation various of petitioner’s disclosures
that may constitute gross mismanagement, including
failure to implement the best practice of locating a
contracting officer representative in the program
office, “red flags” regarding corrections to the budget
that petitioner raised with her supervisor and with
Perry, including whether Perry was “facetiously
claiming that certain employees worked on
reimbursable projects in order to ‘put money back
into’ the appropriated fund,” and otherwise
improperly augmenting appropriations).
Indeed, petitioner’s disclosures, when properly
understood as potential gross mismanagement, paint
the picture of the disorganized financial management
process in OASCR that allowed Perry to commit the
crimes to which he later pled guilty. Dating back to
her OSC complaint regarding Perry’s extreme
influence, ability to locate “additional funds” through
a contract, and year-end-adjustments to ledgers that
excluded employee names, see Dkt. No. 59-2 at 5, 7,
15
Case No. 23-2433 (Fed. Cir. Oct. 22, 2024) and App.
at 149a, Petitioner understood that the lax controls
and mismanagement in OASCR were creating an
environment that could enable activity like Perry’s.
The MSPB’s failure to conduct any analysis of
petitioner’s claims under Section 2302(b)(8)(A)(i) is a
significant error that severely prejudiced her.
MSPB’s regulations require that its initial decisions
include “findings of fact and conclusions of law upon
all the material issues of fact and law presented on
the record,” as well as the “reasons or bases for those
findings and conclusions.” 5 C.F.R. 1201.111(b)(1)-(2)
(emphasis added); see also Spithaler v. Office of Pers.
Mgmt, 1 M.S.P.R. 587, 588-589 (Feb. 15, 1980). More
generally, the MSPB’s deficient analysis deprived
petitioner of the protections of the WPA, because it
essentially failed to consider half of her claims. In an
analogous case, the Fourth Circuit determined that
the only fair course when the MSPB failed to analyze
one of a whistleblower’s claims was to remand to
better develop the record. See Flynn v. United States
SEC, 877 F.3d 200, 207-208 (4th Cir. 2017) (when an
otherwise thorough decision by an MSPB
administrative judge analyzed one of whistleblower’s
claimed violations of SEC regulation and referred to,
but did not analyze the other, Court found “the
Administrative Judge’s conclusion . . . cannot stand,
even under our deferential standard of review” given
5 C.F.R. 1201.111(b)’s requirement that the decision
“contain findings of fact and conclusions of law upon
all the material issues of fact and law presented”)
(cleaned up). The same remedy—remand for the
MSPB to properly develop the record regarding
petitioner’s disclosure of gross management—is
required here. Development of the record is vital
16
because the MSPB used its erroneous determination
that petitioner lacked a reasonable belief under
2302(b)(8)(A)(i) to buttress its subsequent conclusion,
viewed only through the lens of petitioner’s claim
under Section 2302(b)(9), that the USDA would have
demoted petitioner regardless of her protected
activity based on the USDA’s assessment that her
performance was unacceptable. App. 103a-104a.
II.
THIS CASE IS AN IDEAL VEHICLE
BECAUSE PETITIONER’S DENIAL OF
FAIR PROCESS IS EMBLEMATIC OF
THE INJUSTICE WHISTLEBLOWERS
OFTEN FACE, AND THE FAILURE TO
CONSIDER HER CLAIM OF GROSS
MISMANAGEMENT IS CLEAR AND
STRAIGHTFORWARD
Petitioner’s case is an ideal vehicle for the Court’s
review because the challenges she has faced in her
dogged efforts to press her whistleblower claims are
emblematic of the difficulty whistleblowers encounter
receiving fair process from the MSPB and Federal
Circuit. The MSPB’s error in failing to consider
petitioner’s disclosures of gross mismanagement is
clear and straightforward, meaning that the Court
has the opportunity to give petitioner the fair hearing
that she and other federal employees like her deserve
but have been denied by the MSPB and Federal
Circuit.
The MSPB’s decision was unjust and contrary to
law and regulation in several other ways that the
Federal Circuit declined to address, but that
demonstrate the extreme challenges whistleblowers
face when challenging adverse actions constituting
17
reprisal. Repeatedly throughout its decision, the
MSPB
improperly
substituted
credibility
determinations—which are virtually unreviewable—
for legal determinations, to petitioner’s detriment.
See, e.g., App. at 97a-98a (MSPB ignoring USDA’s
clear violation of statute and regulation in petitioner’s
performance review and PIP process and accepting
instead as credible the testimony of a non-expert
USDA witness about what statute and regulation
allow).
Furthermore, instead of making its
determination of whether petitioner had a
“reasonable belief” that her disclosures constituted a
violation of law, regulation, or policy based on the
standpoint of “a disinterested observer with
knowledge of the essential facts,” Lachance, 174 F.3d
at 1381, the MSPB simply made a blanket credibility
determination in favor of the USDA. See App. at 44a.
Petitioner, representing herself, appealed the
MSPB’s decision to the Federal Circuit—not because
of an informed decision about where to seek relief, but
because she is not an attorney and the Notice of
Appeal Rights in the MSPB’s decision implied that
she had no other choice. See App. 115a (“As a general
rule, an appellant seeking judicial review of a final
Board order must file petition for review with the U.S.
Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit”); see also
Dkt. No. 6, Case No. 23-2433 (Fed. Cir. Oct. 13, 2024).
Once before the court of appeals, petitioner faced
more obstacles. The Federal Circuit declined to
consider the newly discovered facts of Perry’s criminal
conduct that vindicated petitioner’s original
disclosures and that petitioner attempted to include
in the record pursuant to Federal Rule of Appellate
Procedure 28(j), see Dkt. No. 72, Case No. 23-2433
(Fed. Cir. May 14, 2025) and Oral Argument at 13:15,
18
No. 2023-2433 (Fed. Cir. Nov. 4, 2025),
https://www.cafc.uscourts.gov/oral-arguments/232433_11042025.mp3. Because petitioner also has no
right or ability to reopen her claim before the MSPB
based on this newly discovered material evidence, see
generally 5 C.F.R. Part 1201.118, the court of appeals’
rejection of it means that petitioner had no
opportunity to be heard regarding this strong
corroboration of her disclosures that was not available
to her during the MSPB process.
Next, although the court acknowledged in oral
argument that USDA had violated a regulation in the
issuance of petitioner’s performance evaluation and
PIP, Oral Argument at 23:35-23:39, No. 2023-2433
(Fed. Cir. Nov. 4, 2025), https://www.cafc.
uscourts.gov/oral-arguments/23-2433_11042025.mp3
(“it really does seem like this was not necessarily
complied with”), it did not act on petitioner’s claim
that that finding supported—namely that the MSPB
had erred in accepting a USDA witness’s faulty
testimony regarding the law and regulation rather
than properly making its own legal determination.
The Federal Circuit affirmed the MSPB’s decision
without providing petitioner with any reasoning and
declined rehearing or en banc review.
III.
THE QUESTION PRESENTED
WARRANTS REVIEW BECAUSE IT
HOLDS IMPLICATIONS FOR
WHISTLEBLOWERS THROUGHOUT
THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT
The question presented is of great importance to
federal employees throughout the federal government
who deserve the protections that Congress mandated
and that federal regulations require, including
19
through a fair and thorough analysis before the
MSPB and Federal Circuit.
Federal employees considering making disclosures
under the WPA and fearing retaliation face a gauntlet
of procedural barriers, from first articulating their
claims to OSC, to exhausting the OSC process, to
establishing a prima facie case of reprisal to receive
hearing by the MSPB and potentially courts of
appeals. Congress has recognized this daunting
challenge and has repeatedly sought to broaden
protections for federal employees who blow the
whistle.
Nonetheless, it appears that the Federal Circuit
continues to hold whistleblowers to an impossible
standard. The early results of the expansion of the
authority of other appeals courts to review MSPB
determinations suggest that the Federal Circuit
continues to deny whistleblowers the protections that
Congress intended. See S. Rep. 115-2209 (2018) at 3
(finding that from October 1994 until Congress
temporarily allowed appeals courts other than the
Federal Circuit to hear MSPB appeals in 2012, “the
Federal Circuit ruled favorably for Federal employee
whistleblowers on only three out of 243 appeals
considered,” and that from 2012 to March 11, 2018,
“the Federal Circuit heard 31 appeals of Federal
employee whistleblowers and ruled favorably for the
whistleblower in just one of those appeals. With allcircuit review authority, other circuits heard six
appeals from Federal employee whistleblowers,
ruling favorably for the whistleblower in two of those
appeals”)(emphasis added); see also Delgado v.
MSPB, 880 F.3d 913, 920-921 (8th Circuit 2018) (in
Eighth Circuit’s first review of an MSPB decision
following the passage of the All Circuits Review Act,
20
finding an MSPB decision arbitrary and capricious;
finding MSPB’s enforcement of the OSC exhaustion
requirement “unlike any we have encountered in
other federal statutory schemes” and the MSPB’s
approach “an arbitrary trap for unwary federal
employees”; and rejecting the MSPB’s reasonable
belief finding because it had applied the wrong
standard and required whistleblower, at the outset, to
“allege . . . the mens rea necessary for a criminal
perjury conviction”).
At the very least, whistleblowers like petitioner
who manage to navigate the OSC process to the
MSPB, and who claim disclosures premised on both
categories enumerated in 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8)(A), are
entitled to a reasoned decision on both categories. In
addition, when the MSPB has failed to follow the
law—which it did in petitioner’s case by entirely
failing
to
consider
her
claims
of
gross
mismanagement—whistleblowers
deserve
more
process from the Federal Circuit than summary
affirmance.
Because the error in petitioner’s case involves the
absence of legal analysis and action by the MSPB
rather than an erroneous interpretation, Congress
cannot amend the WPA to ensure that petitioner and
other whistleblowers like her enjoy its protections as
intended. This Court should grant review to make
clear to whistleblowers that the WPA means what it
says, and that if they make timely and valid
disclosures as defined by law, they will receive
meaningful review of any claims of reprisal from the
MSPB and any court of appeals—including the
Federal Circuit.
21
CONCLUSION
The petition for a writ of certiorari should be
granted.
Respectfully submitted.
SEAN M. AASEN
ADRIAN F. SNEAD
PORTER WRIGHT MORRIS
& ARTHUR LLP
2020 K St., NW, Suite 600
Washington, D.C. 20006
PETER E. MINA
THE MINA FIRM PLLC
1717 K. Street NW
Suite 900
Washington, D.C. 20006
APRIL 2026.
MOLLY GASTON*
Counsel of Record
GASTON & COONEY PLLC
1455 Pennsylvania Ave NW
Suite 400
Washington, D.C. 20004
202.657.0012
mollygaston@gastoncooney.com
*Admitted only in Virginia;
practicing law in the District of
Columbia under the supervision
of lawyer in firm who is member
of good standing of the D.C. Bar.
APPENDIX
TABLE OF CONTENTS
APPENDIX A:
Federal Circuit Court of Appeals
Judgment (November 6,
2025)………………………..…....1a
APPENDIX B:
Merit Systems Protection Board
Initial Decision (June 30,
2023)………………………...……3a
APPENDIX C:
Merit Systems Protection Board
Jurisdictional Decision (March
29, 2022)………………………120a
APPENDIX D:
Federal Circuit Court of Appeals
Order (Jan. 29, 2026)…….…145a
APPENDIX E:
5 U.S.C. § 2302………………147a
APPENDIX F:
Petitioner’s Office of Special
Counsel Complaint (Nov. 23,
2017)………………………..…148a
1a
APPENDIX A
NOTE: This disposition is nonprecedential.
UNITED STATES COURT OF APPEALS
FOR THE FEDERAL CIRCUIT
______________________
TOMASA GABRIELLA BOLANOS-REYNOSO,
Petitioner
v.
DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE,
Respondent
______________________
2023-2433
______________________
Petition for review of the Merit Systems
Protection Board in Nos. DC-0432-20-0011-I-6, DC1221-20-0317-W-5.
______________________
JUDGMENT
______________________
SEAN MICHAEL AASEN, Porter Wright
Morris & Arthur LLP, Washington, DC, argued for
petitioner. Also represented by MATTHEW F.
STOWE, Columbus, OH.
JANA MOSES, Commercial Litigation Branch,
Civil Division, United States Department of Justice,
2a
Washington, DC, argued for respondent. Also
represented by ALBERT S. IAROSSI, PATRICIA M.
MCCARTHY, BRETT SHUMATE.
______________________
THIS CAUSE having been heard and considered, it is
ORDERED AND ADJUDGED:
PER CURIAM (HUGHES, CUNNINGHAM, and
STARK, Circuit Judges).
AFFIRMED. See Fed. Cir. R. 36.
ENTERED BY
ORDER OF THE COURT
/s/
Jarrett B. Partlow
Clerk of Court
November 6, 2025
Date
3a
APPENDIX B
UNITED STATES OF AMERICA
MERIT SYSTEMS PROTECTION BOARD
WASHINGTON REGIONAL OFFICE
TOMASA GABRIELLA BOLANOS-REYNOSO,
Appellant,
v.
DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE,
Agency.
DATE: June 30, 2023
DOCKET NUMBER
DC-0432-20-0011-I-6
DC-1221-20-0317-W-5
Eric L. Siegel, Washington, D.C., for the appellant.
Christian E. Pagan, Washington, D.C., and Carlos R.
Ramirez, Albuquerque, New Mexico, for the agency.
BEFORE
Monique Binswanger
Administrative Judge
INITIAL DECISION
On September 5, 2019, the agency demoted the
appellant from her position as a Supervisory Program
Specialist, GS-0301-15, to Management Analyst, GS0343-13, due to unacceptable performance under 5
4a
U.S.C. chapter 43. I-1 Appeal File (AF), Tab 1.1 The
appellant timely appealed the demotion. Id. The
appellant also filed an Individual Right of Action
(IRA) appeal alleging whistleblower reprisal
regarding related personnel actions. W-1 AF, Tab 1.2
The Board has jurisdiction over both appeals
pursuant to 5 U.S.C. § 4303(e), 5 U.S.C. § 7701 and 5
U.S.C. § 1221. I joined the appeals for processing and,
on August 8, 2022 through August 16, 2022, I held the
requested hearing for both appeals. I-6 AF, Tabs 39,
41, 43, 45, 47 (Hearing Recording (HR) Volumes 1-5)
(HR Vols. 1-5).
For the reasons that follow, the appellant’s
demotion is AFFIRMED and her request for
corrective action is DENIED.
1 The appellant’s demotion appeal has been dismissed without
prejudice and refiled on several occasions since its original filing.
The original docket number was DC-0432-20-0011-I-1. Upon
dismissal and refiling of the appeal, the docket number became
DC-0432-20-0011-I-2. The last digit of the docket number
increased with each dismissal and refiling. Throughout this
Initial Decision, I have cited documents by the last two digits of
the docket number under which they were filed, and the Appeal
File tab at which they appear in that docket (e.g., I-3 AF, Tab
20).
2 The appellant’s IRA appeal has also been dismissed without
prejudice and refiled on several occasions since its original filing.
As with her demotion appeal, the docket number changed with
each refiling. I have cited to documents filed under the IRA
appeal by the last two digits of the docket number under which
they were filed and the Appeal File tab at which they appear in
that docket (e.g., W-5 AF, Tab 32).
5a
ANALYSIS AND FINDINGS
Background
On October 30, 2016, the appellant became the
Director of the Program Planning and Accountability
Division (PPAD) within the agency’s Office of the
Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights (OASCR). Her
direct supervisor was Winona Scott, Associate
Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights (AASCR). Her
second level supervisor was Frederick Pfaeffle Arana,
the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights
(DASCR), a political appointee. At that time, Joseph
Leonard, also a political appointee, served as the
Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights (ASCR). Scott
supervised the appellant, as well as all other senior
OASCR managers and staff. As PPAD Director, the
appellant supervised a staff of approximately six
people: Dianne Davis-Wright (Team Lead), Sequana
Janifer, Mary Ann Sypert, Lynnie Jones, Stephanie
Brown, and Jackie Lenzy. I-1 AF, Tab 9 at 95.
PPAD is responsible for the budgetary functions of
the OASCR, among other administrative functions. I1 AF, Tab 12 at 69. Principal amongst its budgetary
functions is budget execution, i.e., obligating funds
and paying expenses within the available limits. I-6
AF, Tab 39 (HR Vol. 1). Failure to properly execute
the budget can lead to obligating more funds than
available, which could lead to a violation of the AntiDeficiency Act (ADA). I-6 AF, Tabs 39 and 43 (HR
Vols. 1 and 3). As relevant to this appeal, the ADA
statutorily prohibits a government agency from
spending more than Congress appropriates to it, or
spending its appropriated funds for an unauthorized
purpose. I-6 AF, Tab 43 (HR Vol. 3). Accordingly, one
of the appellant’s main functions as the PPAD
6a
Director was to ensure OASCR’s budget was properly
executed and did not “go deficient” or otherwise
violate the law. I-6 AF, Tab 39 (HR Vol. 1). In doing
so, she was charged with maintaining an accurate
“Status of Funds” (SOF) and providing other
necessary budget information for senior OASCR
managers. Id. She was also responsible for overseeing
proper payroll administration for OASCR employees
and proper payment of contractual expenses. Id.
PPAD worked closely with USDA’s Office of the Chief
Financial Officer (OCFO) Budget Officer for staff
offices, John Pirchio. I-6 AF, Tabs 39 and 43 (HR Vols.
1 and 3). In FY 2017, Pirchio and his staff frequently
interacted with the appellant and PPAD staff to assist
them with budget execution tasks.
The OASCR budget includes two main sources of
funding: appropriated funds and reimbursable funds.
I-6 AF, Tabs 39 and 43 (HR Vols. 1 and 3).
Appropriated funds are those funds directed to
OASCR by Congress to carry out the mission of the
office. Id. Typical expenses charged against
appropriated funds are OASCR staff payroll,
employee travel costs, and operating costs such as
rent and utilities. Id. Reimbursable funds are funds
USDA subagencies (e.g., Forest Service, Rural
Development, etc.) pay to OASCR for EEO-related
services OASCR renders. Id. OASCR is also
responsible for providing business operations support
to USDA subagencies and program offices, such as
budget formulation and execution, human resources
support, and contract and operations services. Id.
As relevant to this appeal, OASCR’s primary
services to subagencies is to process, investigate, and
adjudicate complaints of discrimination for each
subagency. I-6 AF, Tab 30 (HR Vol. 1). OASCR’s
7a
Center for Civil Rights Enforcement (CCRE) houses
the Employment Complaints Division (ECD),
Employment Investigations Division (EID), and the
Employment
Adjudication
Division
(EAD)
(collectively referred to as “program offices”). Id. ECD,
under Chief Candace Datcher, reviews formal EEO
complaints and refers accepted complaints to the EID
for investigation. Id. EID, under Chief Dona
Marshall, conducts investigations into and produces
Reports of Investigation (ROIs) for all referred
complaints. Id. If the employee requests the agency
adjudicate the discrimination complaint (as opposed
to requesting a hearing before the EEOC), EID
forwards the complaint and its ROI to the EAD, under
Chief Kirk Perry, for a Final Agency Decision (FAD)
on the discrimination claims. Id.
The investigation, ROI, and FAD tasks are
primarily performed by government contractors. Id.
Accordingly, OASCR program offices (e.g., EID, EAD)
procures contracts with numerous contractors to
provide each of these services. Id. As OASCR’s
budgetary arm, PPAD is responsible for ensuring the
contractors are promptly paid for their services
pursuant to those contracts. Id. However, the funding
for these services is ultimately provided by the
subagencies for which they are provided. Id.
Subagencies obligate funds to OASCR to cover these
payments pursuant to Interagency Agreements
(IAAs), which are contracts setting forth the services
OASCR will provide and the funds the subagencies
will transfer for those services.3 Id.
3 For example, the Forest Service (FS) executes an IAA each
fiscal year agreeing to reimburse OASCR for the cost of EID
conducting, through contractors, investigations into all EEO
8a
Obtaining and executing budget authority for
reimbursable services is a somewhat convoluted
process that requires a brief overview here. “Budget
authority” refers to the amount of money available for
OASCR to process EEO complaints on behalf of the
subagencies. I-6 AF, Tab 43 (HR Vol. 3). After an IAA
is executed, the program office requests a “purchase
order” for the IAA amount. Id. The purchase order is
the subagency’s commitment to reimburse OASCR for
the subject services. Id. The purchase orders are
uploaded into the agency’s financial management
system (“FMMI”), after which OCFO creates a “sales
order” to establish the budget authority in FMMI. Id.
The sales order incorporates all of the purchase orders
for the particular reimbursable activity (e.g.,
investigations) and represents the maximum amount
OASCR can spend on behalf of the subagencies to
complete those tasks. Id. To execute, i.e. spend, the
funds, OASCR directs work to its contractors, who
then submit invoices for the work performed. Id.
Upon receipt of the invoices, the Contracting Officer
Representative (COR) verifies the services provided
were proper under the contract and approves the
invoice for payment. Id. USDA’s Office of Contracting
and Budget (OCB) then reviews and issues final
approval to pay the invoice. Id.
The amount a subagency obligates to OASCR
though its IAAs may change throughout the fiscal
year. I-6 AF, Tab 39 (HR Vol. 1). The initial IAA is
complaints filed by FS employees that year. It also executes an
IAA agreeing to reimburse OASCR for the cost of EAD
producing, through contractors, any FADs requested by FS
employees, and etc. OASCR has several IAAs with each USDA
subagency in this manner.
9a
based on a three-year average of that particular
subagency’s past EEO complaint activity (i.e. how
much services they required). Id. PPAD issues IAA
modifications (“mods”) to either increase or decrease
that amount obligated based on the actual number of
EEO complaints the subagency receives throughout
the year. Id. Upon execution of an IAA modification,
the program office increases the purchase order and
OCFO increases the sales order, resulting in an
increase of OASCR’s reimbursable budget authority
for that activity. Id.; see also I-6 AF, Tab 43 (HR Vol.
3). This function requires that PPAD, OASCR
program offices, and subagency EEO managers work
closely and continuously to track EEO complaint
activity for each subagency to ensure OASCR has
sufficient budget authority to conduct and pay for
EEO services on their behalf. Id.
This constant calibration is necessary because
OASCR cannot authorize payments to contractors
unless it has enough unobligated budget authority
registered in FMMI to cover the expense. I-6 AF, Tabs
39 and 43 (HR Vols. 1 and 3). In other words, if the
subagencies have not obligated enough funds through
their IAAs, OASCR cannot direct contractors to
perform work. Though OASCR sends out IAA
modifications to increase the budget authority when
necessary, that process could take some time. Id.
However, timely processing EEO complaints is
essential to OASCR’s mission; failure to promptly
investigate and adjudicate complaints can lead to
significant sanctions against the agency. Id.
Accordingly, where invoices were due but the
reimbursable budget authority in FMMI was
insufficient, OASCR charged the invoices against its
own unobligated appropriated funds. Id.
10a
This practice could require modifications to
OASCR’s budget to “free up” appropriated funds to
temporarily cover the reimbursable expenditures. I-6
AF, Tabs 39 and 43 (HR Vols. 1 and 3). For example,
PPAD might revise OASCR’s projected obligations
(i.e. planned but unspent funds) for certain expenses,
such as rent or utilities, to create unobligated budget
authority in its appropriated fund against which the
EEO processing costs could be charged. Id. After the
IAA modification is finalized and the reimbursable
budget authority increased, PPAD processes a
general ledger correction (“B2”) to recategorize the
expenditure as reimbursable, thereby releasing
OASCR’s obligation of its appropriated funding for
those costs and allowing it to be obligated for other
expenditures. Id. Accordingly, managing the OASCR
budget involved a constant interplay between
reimbursable and appropriated funds, and required
awareness of projected IAA modifications. Id.
Complicating that interplay was the fact that,
during the relevant time period, some subagencies
could not obligate their entire IAA amount at the start
of the fiscal year. I-6 AF, Tab 39 (HR Vol. 1).
Typically, on October 1 of every year, Congress passes
an annual appropriations bill that provides a full
fiscal year of appropriated funds to each Federal
government agency. Id.; see also I-6 AF, Tab 43 (HR
Vol. 3). Agencies can then obligate funds up to the
limits of their appropriations. Id. However, during
this time period, Congress passed several Continuing
Resolutions (CRs) throughout the fiscal year in lieu of
an entire fiscal year appropriations bill, which had
the effect of appropriating funds to agencies
piecemeal based on the length of the CR. Id. Pursuant
to the October 2016 CR, OASCR and subagencies
11a
received only a fraction of their full FY 2017
appropriated funds at that time. I-6 AF, Tab 39 (HR
Vol. 1). Most subagencies therefore processed
purchase orders using pro-rated amounts based on
the percentage of appropriated funds they received
under the CR.4 Id. Accordingly, the corresponding
sales orders and ultimate budget authority in FMMI
also reflected only a portion of the full-year authority
OASCR expected to have for those services.
Important to this appeal is the fact that
subagencies do not immediately transfer funds to
OASCR upon execution of their IAAs or modifications.
I-6 AF, Tab 43 (HR Vol. 3). Rather, after the
reimbursable services are rendered and contractor
invoices paid, OASCR bills the subagencies for the
invoices paid on their behalf, after which the
subagency transfers the obligated funding in the
amount of that bill. Id. Billing requires PPAD to
determine, for each subagency, how much money it
paid out that fiscal year for IAA-reimbursable
services. Id. This involves reconciling individual
invoices to the payments registered in FMMI and
sorting those expenses by subagency. Id. Once
subagencies are billed for the services, they transfer
the actual funds to OASCR, referred to as “collection”
of the reimbursable funds. Id.
Subagency IAA funds that are obligated to OASCR
appear in FMMI as available funding in OASCR’s
For example, if the CR provided the agency with 2 months of
funding, a subagency might obligate only one-sixth of the full
IAA amount, with the understanding that it would continue
obligating funds in the same manner as additional funding was
appropriated by Congress throughout the year.
12a
reimbursable budget. I-6 AF, Tab 43 (HR Vol. 3). The
subagency cannot use those obligated funds for other
purposes unless they are “deobligated,” i.e., released,
in FMMI. Id. After PPAD fully bills a subagency for
its reimbursable services in a fiscal year, any unused
obligated funds are deobligated and become available
to the subagency for other appropriate expenses. Id.
Likewise, if OASCR determines it paid more for the
subagency’s EEO services than its IAA obligated,
OASCR must issue an IAA modification to the
subagency to increase the amount. Id. While the
amounts fluctuate for individual subagencies,
OASCR requests purchase orders and modifications
based on actual services provided. Id. Therefore,
though OASCR may, after fully reconciling the
billings, determine that some subagencies did not
obligate enough funding, it may also have determined
that other subagencies obligated too much. Id. The
deobligation and modification process following
billing reconciliation therefore levels out those
discrepancies. Id.
During the time period relevant to this appeal,
OASC’s reimbursable funding was not broken down
by activity or subagency. I-6 AF, Tab 43 (HR Vol. 3).
Rather, it was recorded in FMMI as a single budget
authority from which OASCR could draw to pay for
any of the EEO-related services rendered to any
subagency. Id. Additionally, PPAD did not separately
track in real-time the funds it paid on behalf of each
subagency for each service, nor did it reconcile the
billings for many years prior to the appellant’s tenure.
Id. As a result, PPAD had not fully billed the
subagencies for prior year obligations from FY 2013
through FY 2016 upon the appellant’s arrival at the
start of FY 2017. Id. As a result, some subagencies
13a
were due unknown amounts of deobligated funds, and
some subagencies owed unknown amounts of
unobligated funds for those fiscal years. Id. Notably,
unused obligated funds must be deobligated within 5
years or the subagency loses its ability to obligate
those funds toward other expenses. Id. Accordingly,
PPAD had to deobligate and unused FY 2013
subagency funds no later than the end of FY 2018
(September 20, 2018). Id.
FY 2017 Performance
The appellant was required to perform acceptably
pursuant to the goals and tasks set forth in her
annual
Performance
Plan
throughout
the
performance year. OASCR’s performance year
aligned with its Fiscal Year (FY), which ran from
October 1 through September 30 each year. The
appellant’s FY 2017 Performance Plan (FY 2017 Plan)
contained the critical elements and goals of the
appellant’s position against which her performance
would be rated that year. The appellant had six
critical elements of her position: (1) Mission Results;
(2) Leadership/ Management or Supervision; (3) Civil
Rights, EEO and Diversity and Inclusion; (4)
Communications and Customer Service; (5)
Innovation;
and
(6)
Personally
Identifiable
Information. I-1 AF, Tab 12 at 42-53. Her
performance in these elements would be rated on a
three-tier scale: Exceeds Fully Successful; Fully
Successful; or Does not Meet Fully Successful (aka
Unsuccessful or Unsatisfactory). Id. at 40. Pursuant
to the evaluation system, if the appellant’s
performance was rated as Unsuccessful in any critical
element, her overall rating for the fiscal year must be
Unacceptable regardless of how she performed in her
14a
other critical elements. Id.
At issue in this appeal is the appellant’s
performance
in
the
Mission
Results
and
Communication and Customer Service (CCS)
elements. Under Mission Results, the plan required
the following:
Develops,
implements,
and
evaluates
initiatives in assigned programs. Manages
program(s), resolving issues and problems
within the employee’s control. Monitors all
aspects of program(s) for quality, effectiveness,
and consistency. Program plans and guidance
are responsive to objectives and requirements
of the Agency. Policy instructions are
appropriately used and are accurate. Evaluates
effectiveness of work and adjusts plans
accordingly.
AF, Tab 12 at 43. The plan described the level of
performance expected in this critical element to
achieve a “Fully Successful” rating, broken down
between
“Financial
Management,”
“Human
Resources Liaison,” “Program Planning,” and
“Logistics” duties. Id. As relevant to this appeal, the
Financial Management performance expectations of
her position were:
• Manages budget and fiscal responsibilities
• Maintain detailed and accurate accounting
•
•
•
•
information
Provides timely status of funds reports
Processes Procurement and Contract requests
Manages Interagency Agency Agreements
(IAAs)
Ensures financial data integrity
15a
• Verifies and makes prompt payments
Id. The plan further required as a performance
measure that all actions be “completed accurately
within the required timeframes.” Id. Regarding the
Communications and Customer Service element, the
plan required:
Performance demonstrates an ability to
effectively communicate and support to the
ASCR and other members or the leadership
team, as well as subordinates. Engagement
and participation is dependable and reliable in
that
contribution
of
ideas
and
recommendations further development of
OASCR business processes, deliverables and
other critical actions. Works cohesively and
collaboratively with colleagues to share
information,
problem
solve,
implement
decisions, and define team goals. Demonstrates
a mature acceptance of constructive criticism
and acts to address areas noted for
improvement. Works through the channels of
communications
and
keeps
immediate
Supervisor updated and briefed on key and
critical
matters.
Oral
and
written
communications are clear, correct, timely, and
presented in an understandable manner.
Supervisor and coworkers are informed of
issues and problems when necessary.
Information and guidance provided is timely
and correct.
AF, Tab 12 at 49. The plan defined the level of
performance expected to achieve a Fully Successful
rating in this element as follows:
16a
• Written responses are concise, clear, factually
•
•
•
•
•
accurate, logically ordered, and substantially
free or errors. They are provided within
designated or negotiated time frames with the
supervisor, organization and/or customer.
Oral responses are clear, courteous and
directly address Issues and questions on
relevant issues. Provides technical expertise on
initiatives and actions required to establish
and maintain effective delivery or assigned
programs.
Maintains professional relationships and
interactions with immediate staff, customers,
and Internal and external stakeholders to
advance PPAD Interests and promote
collaboration,
two-way
communication,
teamwork, and results. Represents PPAD and
USDA effectively in performance of duties.
Continually
informs
supervisor
and
appropriate Program management or sensitive
or controversial emerging issues and offers well
thought-out recommendations to prevent
and/or respond to developing problems.
Seeks and actively listens to others' questions,
ideas, and concerns; shows respect for and
considers diverse viewpoints, following up to
ensure understanding.
Balances multiple and sometimes competing
interests and adjusts priorities in response to
changing
demands.
Analyzes
customer
feedback and identifies needs and concerns in
making decisions, devising solutions, and
resolving conflicts.
Id. The plan specified that the appellant would be
17a
evaluated based on her supervisor’s observations,
review of her work product, and discussion with
employees, coworkers, customers and superiors. Id.
On January 4, 2017, Scott emailed the appellant
her FY 2017 Plan for review and requested the
appellant let her know if she had any edits to the plan.
I-3 AF, Tab 33 at 6. On January 24, 2017, Scott again
emailed the appellant, directing her to review and
sign her FY 2017 Plan by January 31, 2017. I-3 AF,
Tab 33 at 21. On January 31, 2017, the appellant
responded with a copy of the plan that had a few
highlighted areas and asked to discuss those areas
with Scott. Id. In the Mission Results element, the
appellant highlighted the following tasks: (1) as
“Human Resources Liaison,” her development of the
Annual Succession Plan; (2) under “Program
Planning,” her development of the Annual Conference
Report and (3) coordinating audits and management
control report responses. I-3 AF, Tab 33 at 23. In the
Leadership/Management or Supervision element, she
highlighted tasks requiring her to establish priorities
and timetables for attaining goals and objectives, and
building relationships within the organization. Id. at
25. Finally, she suggested terminology or
typographical changes in the Leadership and CCR
elements. Id. at 26, 29. Hall met with the appellant
on behalf of Scott to discuss her questions and, on
February 6, 2017, the appellant signed the plan. I-1
AF, Tab 12 at 41-42; see also I-6 AF, Tabs 25 and 31
(Stipulations).
On April 20, 2017, Scott issued the appellant a
mid-year performance progress review indicating the
appellant was meeting the expectations of her
position. I-1 AF, Tab 12 at 41. Scott did not meet
directly with the appellant to discuss the progress
18a
review.
In or around May and June 2017, the appellant
began providing Scott and OASCR management with
status of funds reports projecting a negative year-end
balance, particularly with respect to salary
projections against the appropriated funds balance.
In response to the appellant’s emails, Scott frequently
asked the appellant for the status of the IAA funding
and anticipated modifications so additional funding
could be factored into the projections. For example, on
July 13, 2017, Scott directed the appellant to provide
an “accurate” status of funds every week. I-3 AF, Tab
36 at 81 (emphasis in original). Additionally, in
response to the appellant’s August 21, 2017 request
for a meeting with Scott and Pirchio on the budget
deficit, Scott stated:
I need to know if you have received all of the
moneys from the mods and if not, what is
outstanding and will that impact the current
approps balance. Thanks
I-3 AF, Tab 17 at 31-32. The following day, the
appellant provided Scott with a chart indicating that
at least 20 IAA modifications had not been received.
Id. at 29-30. This issue continued to skew the
appellant’s budget projections through the end of the
fiscal year. Only one week later, on August 29, 2017,
Perry requested the status of funds, to include
reimbursable funds. I-3 AF, Tab 37 at 52. In response,
the appellant provided Scott, Perry, and King with
the report. However, the balances provided were in
the negative because the appellant failed to
incorporate payroll adjustments that had been made
in FMMI. Id. at 49-51. After Scott again asked her
about the negative balances, the appellant provided a
19a
status of funds projecting a year-end positive balance
of $143,198.60.
Approximately two weeks later, on September 13,
2017, the appellant provided Scott with the weekly
status of funds that did not include the status of
expected IAA reimbursable funds and showing a
negative year-end balance of over $43,000. I-3 AF,
Tab 33 at 56-58. Scott again requested the status of
the pending IAA funds and directed the appellant to
only provide her status of funds reports that
incorporate all outstanding modifications. Id. at 56.
Separately, Scott forwarded the email to Perry and,
through several back and forth emails, they had the
following conversation:
Scott: Does this make sense to you?
Perry: No, how the hell is the budget going in
reverse
Let me check this out tonight, but something is not
correct
Scott: I am just now signing a mod for the FS in
the amount of $355,985. Do you see that
anywhere?
Perry: Nope, it is not registered as part of the
reimbursable money yet, and we have to get this
all done like by the end of next week or else, it will
be no good.
Part of that is going to be used to offset money used
by ancon during the initiative.
We also need the mod from FSIS
Scott: Yep I know – that is about $255
Perry: Right (way to go Winona- on top of things)
20a
Scott: I’m convinced GB is trying to set me up to
be in violation of the ADA. She only reports
negative balances.
Perry: Me too, every time we sit down and I
explain where the money [is], by the next week she
has found a way to get the balance back into the
Negative, this is damn crazy
That’s why I’m looking through these numbers,
but seriously by next week I may have to intervene
with Diane and them, they keep taking instruction
from her and ignoring items we should be working
on… there is no way in heck the balance should
still be negative
Scott: You have my permission to do so. Thanks
I-6 AF, Tab 36 at 6-7. The following day, Scott emailed
the appellant the following directions:
The adjustments need to be made on the SOF
by inputting more accurate figures in the
operating budget column. Examples: overtime,
rent, communications and utilities, & travel all these figures need to change and PPAD can
make those adjustments (not OCFO).
In addition, the B2 adjustments need to be
completed by NLT Wednesday 9/20/17. I still
have no idea what IAA agreements are
outstanding nor what our bottom line
projection is for spending.
As for a year end process in a manual- the staff
knows what to do and have been doing so for
years.
I-3 AF, Tab 33 at 69.
21a
In addition to the anticipated adjustments related
to IAA modifications, another issue was the proper
coding of OASCR employees’ payroll. Typically,
OASCR employee salaries are charged against its
appropriated budget authority. However, OASCR
employees detailed to working on reimbursable
matters (i.e. projects or initiatives funded by one or
more subagencies), had their salaries charged to
OASCR’s reimbursable funds for the applicable time
period. As relevant to this appeal, in FY 2017, OASCR
conducted a 120-Day EEO Initiative wherein OASCR
employees produced FADs in addition to those being
written by contractors to address the backlog. I-6 AF,
Tab 39 (HR Vol. 1). As this was reimbursable work,
the detailed OASCR employees’ salaries were to be
charged against the reimbursable rather than the
appropriated budget. PPAD therefore modified the
employees’ time and attendance (T&A) records to
reflect the reimbursable billing code for the relevant
pay periods. Once modified, salary amounts
previously charged against appropriated funds were
transferred to reimbursable funds, thereby releasing
that appropriated budget authority for other
appropriate uses.
On July 14, 2017, Sypert emailed the appellant
that week’s status of funds report and indicated
OASCR might have a negative year-end balance of
over
$250,000. I-3 AF, Tab 36 at 100. The appellant
responded that Sypert still had to transfer the
detailed employee salary expenses to the
reimbursable funds, which Sypert then effected. Id.
Due to a glitch in FMMI that left a small portion of
the salary expense in the appropriated budget, PPAD
had to execute two adjustments to fully effectuate the
22a
expense transfer. However, the second transfer was
not done. This caused anomalies in the budget that
the appellant could not explain. The appellant, Scott,
Pirchio, and their staffs exchanged numerous emails
throughout the last quarter of the fiscal year
discussing these various adjustments, with Pirchio
eventually stating:
I don’t think you understand what is trying to
be accomplished here. Employees were booked
to the appropriation, they did a 120 day EEO
Initiative to the reimbursement. OCR did
corrected T&As to move their time while on
detail to the reimbursement. There is a flaw in
the FMMI system that when a corrected T&A
is completed, it leaves a small amount of
benefits un-moved. This B2 that MaryAnn is
proposing is moving the ‘un-moved’ benefit
portion.
I-3 AF, Tab 33 at 51. Pirchio testified that these issues
had come up throughout the fiscal year and that this
was not the first time he had to explain this to the
appellant. I-6 AF, Tab 43 (HR Vol. 3).
The appellant’s oversight of IAA processing also
deteriorated during this time period. On or about
November 18, 2016, PPAD determined that the IAAs
overcharged subagencies for certain shared costs and
that modifications to the IAAs were required to adjust
the amounts. I-3 AF, Tab 37 at 45. On or about July
10, 2017, PPAD issued a second round of
modifications to the subagencies to correct the
projected number of EEO cases for many subagencies.
Id. On July 13, 2017, Scott emailed the appellant:
It is my understanding that there were
23a
mistakes in the IAAs that were sent to the
agencies. They should have been vetted with
the OASCR program Chiefs (Dona, Kirk and
Candace) to ensure the correct complaint
numbers were being billed. Dianne will advise
you, me and David on which agencies will
require corrected IAAs.
Please stay on top of this.
I-3 AF, Tab 37 at 32.
On July 18, 2017, the appellant sent Perry and
Marshall a third round of draft modifications and
requested they review and approve by noon the
following day. I-3 AF, Tab 37 at 35. These
modifications primarily addressed the increase in the
number of cases several subagencies were processing.
Id. at 45. However, the drafts contained errors and
were not issued to the subagencies until
approximately August 11, 2017. Id. at 33-39. The
third round of modifications increased the amount
services to be provided by approximately 80 EEO
cases between approximately 10 subagencies. Id. at
44. The number of modifications caused confusion and
concern amongst some subagencies. I-6 AF, Tab 39
(HR Vol. 1). Furthermore, as of August 22, 2017,
PPAD had not received approximately 22 executed
IAA modifications or, therefore, the corresponding
reimbursable budget authority. I-3 AF, Tab 37 at 4546.
The appellant also had difficulty completing other
tasks assigned. For example, on July 10, 2017, OCFO
emailed agency management control officers
(including the appellant) directing them to upload
their FY 2017 A-123 Certification Statements in draft
form by July 21, 2017 and in final form by August 18,
24a
2017. I-3 AF, Tab 33 at 40-41. On July 20, 2017, the
appellant asked OCFO who in OASCR would sign the
certification and whether it had a copy of the prior
year certification. Id. at 40. OCFO informed her that
Dr. Leonard (then DASCR) signed the prior year, and
attached the FY 2016 certification. Id. at 39-40. The
appellant then forwarded OCFO’s email and the FY
2016 Certification to Scott, with the following
message:
Attached is OASCR FY 2016 certification
signed by Dr. Leonard. We need to submit this
FY certification. The draft statement is due
tomorrow.
Id. at 39. The following afternoon, Scott emailed the
appellant asking “Is the 2017 certification memo
ready to be place in final? Dorothea is here until about
5 today.” Id. at 38-39. The appellant responded:
I am working on the draft Memo and its several
attachments but need until Monday to finalize
it. I have requested for an extension from Kim
Chapman.
Question: Should the memo come from David,
through you, to Lynn Moaney?
Id. at 38. Scott responded it would come from her. Id.
That afternoon, Dorothea Cox provided the appellant
with the sample memorandum. I-3 AF, Tab 34 at 51.
The appellant did not contact Scott further about this
assignment. Id. at 37-38. On September 12, 2017,
Scott emailed the appellant: “Where is the
certification statement? It is two months overdue.” I3 AF, Tab 33 at 37. The appellant responded:
Please refer to the attached email. I sent you
25a
the FY 2016 certificate and mentioned to you
during a meeting that I checked with OCFO
and they confirmed that it should come from
you to Lynn Moaney. I do not have the memo
form in word or the letterhead to prepare this
statement. If Gwen sends me last year’s word
file I can go ahead and work on it.
Id. The appellant attached to her email Cox’s July 21,
2017 email providing her with a sample
memorandum. I-3 AF, Tab 34 at 51. She stated:
In the attached email you were asking me to
use an attached fillable file but it was not. It
was a copy. I requested from Doretha the word
file of the FY 2016 certificate to prepare it but
I got the instructions to prepare a
memorandum, see email below. I mentioned
this to you. I did not have the files to prepare
this certificate. Again, if Gwen or Doretha send
me word file of the FY 2016 memo, see
attached, I can prepare it for you to send it
directly to Lynn.
Id. Following these responses, Scott completed the
task herself. I-6 AF, Tab 39 (HR Vol. 1).
In addition to this issue, on October 2, 2017, Scott
learned the appellant had not made an attorney’s fees
payment of $1,000 required by a grievance
settlement, as she had been previously directed in
July 2017. I-3 AF, Tab 36 at 18-19. Specifically, on
July 19, 2017, the appellant had received the
settlement agreement, signed by Scott, and requested
authority to proceed with the required payment. Id.
at 89. Scott responded: “I have executed the
settlement agreement and it should be processed
26a
accordingly. Please do what is required to provide the
relief stated in the agreement.” Id. The appellant
assigned the task to Davis-Wright, however, DavisWright did not issue the payment. On October 2,
2017, an agency attorney emailed the appellant and
Scott requesting a status on the payment, which still
had not been issued. Id. at 18-19. Scott directed the
appellant to confirm by close of business that day that
the payment had been issued. Id.
During this time period, the appellant continued
to be concerned about what she believed to be
improprieties in how OASCR managed its budget. In
or around June or July 2017, she contacted OIG with
an allegation that OASCR was mismanaging its
funds. The appellant described the contact as
“informal conversations” that increased in detail in
July, August, and September 2017. I-6 AF, Tab 45
and 45 (HR Vols. 4 and 5). The appellant informed
OIG that she wanted to remain anonymous with
respect to these conversations. Id. In August 2017,
during the OCFO financial management conference,
the appellant notified Pirchio that she contacted OIG
about concerns regarding the OASCR budget. Id. The
appellant did not inform Scott of her OIG contacts. Id.
On September 5, 2017, during an all-hands
meeting, the appellant alleges that Scott, when
discussing funding for EEO investigations, looked at
the appellant and said words to the effect “no one is
going to accuse me of an ADA violation.” I-6 AF, Tabs
45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5); see also I-3 AF, Tab 33
at 156. The following day, the appellant requested to
meet with Scott, Perry, and Pirchio to “discuss the
current availability of appropriated funds.” I-3 AF,
Tab 28 at 98. Following that meeting, the appellant
sent the following email to Pirchio only:
27a
I am concerned with the overall current
situation of the OASCR budget and the recent
(and planned) level of spending by
management
I have (and you too) met with OASCR
management to explain and advice on a
judicious and conservative level of spending
since April. However I don’t see that happening
especially because of management's reliance
[on] the additional funds to come from
reimbursable activities. And I hope that the
advice given by EAD's Director to management
is correct.
At this time, I am just waiting on the final
review of the payroll by Mary Ann to identity
whether we have the so called additional funds
from salaries charged back to reimbursable
activities and freeing up appropriated funds to
cover management's level of spending. I should
have this information for our meeting with
Management tomorrow morning.
I-3 AF, Tab 28 at 98.
Throughout September 2017, PPAD was required
to complete many budget execution and financial
management tasks in order to “close out” the fiscal
year. During that time period, the appellant was in
constant communication with OCFO and OASCR
management with questions and clarifications on the
budget, which she continually projected to be deficient
at year-end. During this time, the appellant
expressed concern about the number of budget
adjustments PPAD was required to make. For
example, on September 28, 2017, the appellant sent
28a
the following email to Scott and Perry:
All of the B2s, 12 or so, totaling almost $1.5
million dollar[s] are definitely a challenge at
the end of the fiscal year. This is definitely
something that needs to improve in the next
fiscal year. We should not need to be
correcting the funding sources as much as
we are trying to do. This is a red flag during
any audit. We can work in the upcoming fiscal
year to do things differently.
In the meantime, I am trying to send the
corrections for the Panum contract you
requested Kirk ($90K) and also the recoup
of $250K used in EID shared, Dianne is
working on this. Without these corrections we
cannot do other B2s.
I-3 AF, Tab 28 at 105. As of September 30, 2017,
OASCR did not have a negative year-end balance.
I-6 AF, Tab 39 (HR Vol. 1).
On October 17, 2017, during a mandatory
OASCR management meeting, the appellant raised
concerns to Scott that OASCR had to be more
judicious in its spending to avoid overspending or
unauthorized commitments. I-6 AF, Tabs 45 and
47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5).
On or about October 20, 2017, Scott completed
her draft of the appellant’s year-end FY 2017
performance evaluation and rated her as
Unacceptable in the Mission
Results
and
Communications and Customer Service critical
elements. She submitted the draft rating to her
supervisor, Chris Young, a political appointee
serving as the USDA Deputy Chief of Staff, for his
29a
review and concurrence. I-1 AF, Tab 6 at 8. Young
signed the rating on November 15, 2017. Id. Also
on October 20, 2017, Scott provided Young a draft
Performance Improvement Plan (PIP) with the
following note:
Chris – This PIP still needs clearance from
OHRM but gives you background
on
Gabriella’s deficiencies (performance).
I-1AF, Tab 6 at 9. Shortly thereafter, King was
assigned as the appellant’s direct supervisor and
rater of record. On October 26, 2017, King signed the
appellant’s performance evaluation, which had been
prepared by Scott, as the Rating Official. I-1 AF,
Tab 12 at 40. Scott signed the evaluation as the
Reviewing Official. Id. On October 30, 2017, King
notified the appellant of these changes and issued
her the evaluation signed by he and Scott.
Also on October 30, 2017, King issued the
appellant the PIP Scott had drafted with OHRM.
I-1 AF, Tab 12 at 29. The PIP detailed examples
of the appellant’s unacceptable performance in the
two noted critical elements. Regarding Mission
Results, the PIP listed the following 12 examples:
• Failure to timely and adequately produce the
OASCR budget book: “After several months
you provided a work product which was
unorganized and confusing, it did not resemble
the previous budget books, and was missing
key elements and components of the budget.”
• Failure to promptly pay attorney’s fees
pursuant to a settlement agreement processing
action. This payment was due by July 17, 2017,
but was not paid until late-September 2017,
30a
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
causing a potential breach of the agreement.
Failure to timely create the FY 2017 A-123
Certification document and upload it to
SharePoint as instructed.
Failure to manage budget and other fiscal
responsibilities when, on September 21, 2017,
she was unable to clarify or assist Sypert with
small dollar amounts for 6 180-day initiative
employees’ salary and benefits that remained
in the appropriated budget after transferring
those salaries to the reimbursable budget. She
showed a lack of understanding and confusion
on the matter, and Pirchio had to clear up the
issue instead.
On August 29, 2017, failed to promptly pay
OCIO for application support
Failure to manage IAAs effectively, evidenced
by four modifications needed throughout the
fiscal year, some without clear explanation,
causing confusion and complaints from
subagencies.
On September 14, 2017, she sent an email
regarding FY 2017 closeout that failed to
explain necessary budget adjustments in a
clear manner and indicated her failure to
promptly, efficiently, or effectively manage the
IAA process
Generally administering the IAA process in an
untimely and confusing manner, causing
complaints from Forest Service and other
subagencies. This resulted in OASCR having to
initiate a Rapid Improvement Event (RIE) to
develop clear, concise and consistent
procedures.
Failed to manage the budget adequately when
31a
she learned of an appropriated balance
reduction of $550,000 but failed to provide
OASCR with any meaningful guidance or
suggestions to address the shortfall.
• Held supply requests for months despite
availability of funds. On September 12, 2017,
Scott instructed her to process EID supply
requests and not hold them up.
• Failure to maintain knowledge of the budget
breakdown. Her September 13, 2017 email
regarding estimated payroll was confusing,
contained a negative balance for overtime, and
grossly inflated calculations for projected rent
expenditures.
• Failure to manage the IAA process led to
complaints from the Civil Rights Directors
from FS, FNS, and FSIS, among others.
AF, Tab 12 at 31-33. Regarding Communications and
Customer Service, the PIP listed the following 12
examples:
• January 27, 2017 draft notes to OASCR senior
managers was confusing, had no legend and
was generally deficient
• Failed
to
offer
well
thought
out
recommendations to prepare solutions for IAA
standard operating procedures
• Failed to actively listen when she requested an
iComplaints demo on July 19, 2017 despite
being told it is extremely confidential
• Failed to update supervisor on status of
outstanding IAAs effectively. Reported in a
staff meeting that all IAAs were processed
when several still outstanding. One senior
manager complained about 11th hour requests
32a
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
for funding from OASCR
Failed to adequately respond to customer
requests when, on April 6, 2017, she failed to
respond to Ayerdi request for status of OIG and
GAO reports
Email responses are often unclear. On April 26,
2017, email regarding Settlement Rules for
Billing Shared Costs incorrectly stated the
number of investigations completed by OASCR
in the past three years, and did not include
important and relevant information in the
email. On March 6, 2017, email regarding
updated FAD numbers for EID IAA was
confusing.
Failed to maintain professional relationships
and interactions with staff. Micromanaged
staff, requested access to their personal emails,
and received several informal complaints about
her management style
Unilaterally changed staff telework days
without discussing with them, causing turmoil
and internal complaints.
Failed to maintain professional relationships
with staff. On September 14, 2017, emails with
Sypert evidenced lack of understanding of basic
budgeting and fiscal responsibilities of her
position, leading Sypert to express that she was
unsure of what your goal was.
Excessively relied on Pirchio for guidance on
her duties, to include phone calls, emails, and
unscheduled in person meetings
Failed to inform supervisor or OGC of a
sensitive payment mistake she made regarding
the settlement agreement fees payment,
causing inefficiencies
33a
• Received complaints from OASCR peer
managers regarding the appellant’s repetitive
and redundant questions, failure to listen with
regard to program needs, and failure to provide
resources.
Id. at 35-37.
The PIP required the appellant to complete certain
tasks
within
the
Mission
Results
and
Communications elements to demonstrate successful
performance. Regarding Mission Results, the
appellant was required to satisfactorily complete the
following tasks:
1. Support the RIE implementation process for
IAA; sign IAA documents within one day of
receipt and file it in the appropriate folder with
no more than one delay
2. Clean up the FY 2015 and FY 2016 prior
billings for reconciliation within 45 days. The
billings must also be verified for accuracy by
OCFO by the end of the PIP period. The project
must be completed timely with no more than
one error.
3. Meet established budget deadlines as assigned
by King or the Office of Budget and Program
Analysis
(Pirchio
and
staff)
without
supervision by OCFO without more than one
timeliness lapse. Keep King apprised of
projected delays and provide him with a course
of action or options to resolve delays.
4. Submit a weekly report detailing her plan for
accomplishing tasks, progress made on tasks
and projected deliverables.
AF, Tab 12 at 33. Regarding Communications, the
34a
appellant was required to satisfactorily complete the
following tasks:
1. Acknowledge and resolve all emails within one
calendar day unless instructed otherwise.
Email responses must be accurate and in
compliance with applicable regulations or
SOPs.
2. Communicate in a professional manner with
staff, contractors, and other agency officials.
3. Timely respond to all staff concerns, normally
within one workday, copying King on the
response.
4. Institute staff work plans in order to equitably
manage PPAD workload
5. Encourage staff to utilize the open door policy
to address their chain of command
6. Promote teamwork and collaboration in the
accomplishment of PPAD operations.
Id. at 37.
The PIP was scheduled to run for 60 days, through
December 30, 2017, after which time King would
evaluate her performance. The PIP warned the
appellant that failure to improve her performance to
the fully successful level may result in her
reassignment, reduction in grade, or removal from
Federal service. I-1 AF, Tab 12 at 37. King stated that
he would make himself available to the appellant at
least weekly to discuss her progress, inform her of any
performance-related problems he becomes aware of,
and answer any questions she has regarding her
performance. Id. at 38. He further stated they would
have bi-weekly performance counseling sessions,
during which he expected the appellant to provide a
roadmap tracking the status of her tasks and
35a
deliverables. Id. He directed the appellant to
immediately contact him with any questions or
concerns about the performance expectations. Id.
Finally, he directed the appellant to notify him of any
training needs she had within 10 days of receipt of the
PIP, identifying a specific training she believes would
assist her to successfully perform her tasks. Id. He
also encouraged her to continue working with any
appointed mentor and to notify him if one had not
been appointed, as well as her intent to address that
issue and how he could assist her. Id. King attached
to the PIP the appellant’s Position Description and
her FY 2017 Plan.
Throughout the PIP period, King and the
appellant met for bi-weekly performance counseling
sessions, with the exception of two occasions due to
scheduling conflicts. I-6 AF, Tabs 43-47 (HR Vols. 35). At each session, the appellant provided King with
her weekly report and the status of each PIP task. The
appellant also maintained a master chart tracking
the weekly progress reports and the status of the PIP
tasks. See generally, I-6 AF, Tab 27 at 7-9. In lateDecember 2017, the appellant took leave pursuant to
the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) into
January 2018. On January 16, 2017, King notified the
appellant that, due to her approved FMLA leave, her
PIP would be extended from December 30, 2017 to
January 22, 2018. I-1 AF, Tab 12 at 28. Accordingly,
the appellant’s PIP concluded on January 22, 2018.
Id. at 27. On January 29, 2018, King notified the
appellant “I anticipate completing my part of the
process this week and forwarding it to the deciding
official.” Id.
36a
The appellant’s demotion
On April 4, 2018, King issued the appellant a
Notice of Proposed Removal for Unacceptable
Performance. I-1 AF, Tab 8 at 13. Therein, he stated
the appellant failed to improve her performance to the
fully successful level in the Mission Results and
Communications critical elements during her PIP.
For Mission Results, King determined the
appellant failed to support the RIE, failed to timely
reconcile the FY 2015 and FY 2016 billings, and twice
failed to provide him weekly reports. Id. at 13-14.
Regarding the RIE, King determined she “conveyed a
general resentment towards the RIE process” and
misperceived the role of the RIE and follow-on
Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) Workgroup
as corrections for PPAD deficiencies. Id. at 14. He
further found that she blamed most of the PPAD
deficiencies on her staff, an alleged lack of guidance,
and funding issues. Id. Regarding the prior FY
billings, King determined she did not accurately
reconcile the billings as directed. Id. He noted that
only minimal progress was made and for the wrong
years (FY 2013 and FY 2014). He further noted that
the appellant failed to utilize all available staff to
work on the project. Id. Regarding the
Communications element, King determined the
appellant failed to institute appropriate staff work
plans, failed to communicate in a professional
manner, and failed to encourage the open-door policy
amongst her staff. I-1 AF, Tab 8 at 14-17. The
proposal informed the appellant of her right to reply
orally, in writing, or both and to furnish evidence in
support of the reply. Id. at 17-18. It further notified
her of her right to representation and to a reasonable
37a
amount of official time to prepare her response to the
proposal. Id.
On April 10, 2018, the parties executed a
settlement agreement providing that, in lieu of the
proposed removal, the agency would reassign the
appellant to the position of Senior Program Analyst,
GS-14, in the Financial Policy and Planning Division
of the OCFO. I-6 AF, Tabs 25 and 31 (Stipulations).
The agreement was thereafter effectuated. However,
on November 7, 2018, the EEOC Office of Federal
Operations (OFO) issued a decision finding that, on
April 17, 2018, the appellant had revoked the parties’
agreement. I-1 AF, Tab 7 at 68-74. The decision
directed the agency to return the appellant to the
status quo prior to effectuating the agreement. Id.
Pursuant to the OFO decision, on March 14, 2019,
the agency reassigned the appellant back to her
former Supervisory Program Specialist position and
placed her on paid administrative leave pending
reissuance of the notice of proposed removal. I-1 AF,
Tab 7 at 65-67. On March 19, 2019, King notified the
appellant that the April 4, 2018 Notice of Proposed
Removal was reinstated, effective the following day.
I-1 AF, Tab 7 at 63; see also I-1 AF, Tab 8 at 13. He
further informed the appellant of her right to reply
orally and/or in writing to the proposal within 10
calendar days. Id. at 63-64.
Following discussions between the OSC and the
agency’s Office of the General Counsel (OGC) related
to the appellant’s pending OSC complaint, Mary
Pletcher-Rice, Chief Human Capital Officer (CHCO),
was designated as the deciding official for proposed
removal. I-6 AF, Tab 43 (HR Vol. 3). On April 19, 2019
and April 25, 2019, the appellant, through counsel,
submitted her written and oral responses to the
38a
proposal, respectively. I-1 AF, Tab 7. On May 22,
2019, HR Specialist Matthew Green emailed the
appellant to notify her of additional information
Pletcher-Rice was considering in relation to the
proposed removal. I-1 AF, Tab 6 at 7. Green
referenced the appellant’s allegation in her response
that King should not have served as her rating official
for FY 2017, and stated the following:
Ms. Scott was the first line supervisor for Ms.
Bolanos Reynoso from October 30, 2016
through September 30, 2017. Mr. David King
was detailed to temporarily replace Ms. Scott
as the first line supervisor for her direct reports
while Ms. Scott was temporarily elevated to the
Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights. During
this transition, Mr. King and Ms. Scott
regularly conferred regarding the performance
of all the direct report employees that were
transitioned to Mr. King. There was no political
head of the Office of the Assistant Secretary for
Civil Rights (OASCR) appointed at that time to
assume the role of reviewing official.
Accordingly, it was decided not to burden the
political leadership outside OASCR with
reviewing the performance of these employees.
Ms. Scott and Mr. King transitioned their roles
as reviewing and rating officials respectively to
keep the ratings within OASCR. Ms. Scott
signed another copy of Ms. Bolanos Reynoso’s
performance appraisal as the rating official
and sent it to then Deputy Chief of Staff, Chris
Young. This rating of record advised Mr. Young
of Ms. Bolanos Reynoso’s performance
deficiencies. Mr. Young signed as the reviewing
official on November 15, 2017. The employee
39a
was not given a copy of this rating during the
transition to Mr. King’s supervision, and Mr.
King monitored her performance during the
performance improvement plan. For the
purposes of Agency records, Ms. Scott, Mr.
Young, and Mr. King all signed performance
rating documents that indicate notice and
knowledge of the employee’s performance
deficiencies. No interim rating was required.
Id. Green attached to the email the referenced
November 15, 2017 performance plan signed by Scott
as the appellant’s rating official, as well as a draft
copy of the appellant’s PIP that Scott sent to Young
for background information. Id. at 8-14. Green
provided the appellant the option to submit an
additional written response to the new information no
later than May 30, 2019. Id. at 7. On May 30, 2019,
the appellant, though counsel, submitted a written
response to Green’s email. I-1 AF, Tab 5 at 29.
On September 5, 2019, Pletcher-Rice issued a
decision letter sustaining the charge of unacceptable
performance but mitigating the penalty to a reduction
in grade and reassignment from the GS-15 PPAD
Director position to a GS-13 Management Analyst
position within PPAD. I-1 AF, Tab 5 at 24. PletcherRice stated in the decision that she reviewed all
evidence regarding the proposal and the information
the appellant provided in response thereto. She found
the appellant failed to raise her performance to an
acceptable level at the conclusion of the PIP. Id. at 24.
Accordingly, the appellant was demoted and
reassigned, effective September 29, 2019. Id. at 22,
24. The appellant timely appealed her demotion. AF,
Tab 1.
40a
Procedural History
On November 20, 2017, the appellant filed a
complaint of whistleblower reprisal with the Office of
Special Counsel (OSC), identified as MA-18-0913. W1 AF, Tab 6 at 7-20. Therein, she alleged she made
disclosures to several management officials regarding
her belief that OASCR was engaging in various
improper spending and contractual practices. Id. at
10, 11. She alleged that, in retaliation for her
disclosures, the agency subjected her to harassment
in the form of refusal to provide training and
equipment for a reasonable accommodation; placed
her on a Performance Improvement Plan (PIP); issued
her an Unacceptable performance rating; and failed
to timely approve her leave requests. Id. at 11. On
April 5, 2018, the appellant supplemented her OSC
complaint to include the proposed removal. W-1 AF,
Tab 7 at 24. On November 23, 2017, the appellant also
filed a Disclosure with OSC, identified as DI-18-0945,
alleging OASCR engaged in financial improprieties.
Id. at 5-13.
On October 4, 2019, the appellant timely filed an
adverse action appeal regarding her demotion and
raised therein an allegation of whistleblower reprisal.
AF, I-1 Tab 1. On December 19, 2019, this office
separately docketed an IRA appeal at the appellant’s
request regarding MA-18-0913, as more than 180
days had passed since she filed the complaint.5 WAF1, Tab 1. On March 29, 2022, I issued an “Order
Finding IRA Jurisdiction, in Part,” wherein I
On March 6, 2020, OSC issued the appellant a letter informing
her that it terminated its inquiry into her complaint and would
not take further action. WAF-1, Tab 9 at 6-7.
41a
determined the appellant made a nonfrivolous
allegation that she made protected disclosures of
financial improprieties in April, May, and June of
2017, and that she engaged in protected activity
and/or made a protected disclosure when she
contacted the OIG in July 2017.6 I further found she
made a nonfrivolous allegation that her disclosures
and/or activity was a contributing factor in her
October 30, 2017 Unacceptable Performance rating,
PIP, and the April 4, 2018 proposed removal.7 Id.
On April 27, 2022, the appeal was dismissed without prejudice
following the agency’s motion challenging the validity of AJ
appointments, citing Lucia v. Securities & Exchange
Commission, 138 S. Ct. 2044 (2018). See W-2 AF, Tab 13. On
March 16, 2022, the appeal was reassigned to me following the
Board’s ratification of AJ appointments. W-5 AF, Tabs 2 and 5.
On March 25, 2022, I informed the parties that I would make an
independent determination of Board jurisdiction and permitted
the parties to supplement their prior jurisdictional pleadings
with any additional claims and arguments. W-5 AF, Tabs 7 and
8. The parties both filed supplemental jurisdictional pleadings.
W-5 AF, Tabs 11-13.
I found the appellant failed to make a nonfrivolous allegation
that she engaged in protected activity under 5 U.S.C. §
2302(b)(9)(D) on the grounds that she did not allege she refused
any particular order issued, or that her EEO complaint
constitutes protected activity under 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(9)(A)(ii).
I-6 AF, Tab 15 at 9-11. I also found she failed to make a
nonfrivolous allegation that she was subjected to a significant
change in duties, responsibilities, or working conditions based
on her allegation of a hostile work environment. Id. at 11-13.
Finally, I found the appellant failed to make a nonfrivolous
allegation that either Scott or King were aware of her OSC
complaint prior to the alleged personnel actions and,
accordingly, it could not have contributed to those actions. Id. at
16-18. Accordingly, I do not address those claims further herein.
42a
On May 26, 2023, I issued an Order Joining Cases for
Processing, wherein I joined the appellant’s adverse
action and whistleblower appeals due to the
interrelatedness of the facts and issues presented in
both. I-6 AF, Tab 16. Pursuant to that joinder, on
August 8-10, 2022, I held the requested hearing,
during which the parties addressed all issues raised
in both appeals. The records of her appeals are now
closed and ripe for a decision on the merits.
Whistleblower Appeal DC-1221-20-0317-W-5
To establish an affirmative defense of
whistleblower reprisal, the appellant must prove by
preponderant evidence: (1) she made a protected
disclosure under 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8) or engaged in
activity protected by 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(9)(A)(i), (B),
(C), or (D); and (2) it was a contributing factor in the
personnel action(s) being appealed. A “Protected
Disclosure” is defined as any disclosure of information
that the employee “reasonably believes evidences (i)
any violation of any law, rule, or regulation, or (ii)
gross mismanagement, a gross waste of funds, an
abuse of authority, or a substantial and specific
danger to public health or safety.” 5 U.S.C. §
2302(b)(8)(A). A reasonable belief exists if a
disinterested observer with knowledge of the
essential facts known to and readily ascertainable by
the appellant could reasonably conclude that the
actions of the Government evidence one of the
categories of wrongdoing listed in section
2302(b)(8)(A). LaChance v. White, 174 F.3d 1378,
1381 (Fed. Cir. 1999); Chavez v. Department of
Veterans Affairs, 120 M.S.P.R. 285, ¶ 18 (2013). A
protected disclosure includes disclosures of such
information to the Special Counsel, or to the Inspector
43a
General of an agency or another employee designated
by the head of an agency to receive such disclosures.
5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8)(B). Additionally, “Protected
Activity” includes “cooperating with or disclosing
information to the Inspector General of an agency, or
the Special Counsel, in accordance with applicable
provisions of law.” 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(9)(C).
The appellant need not prove that one or more of
these types of wrongdoing actually existed; rather,
the appellant must show that the matter disclosed
was one which a reasonable person in his position
would believe evidenced any of the situations
specified in 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8). Garst v. Department
of the Army, 60 M.S.P.R. 514, 518 (1994). However, a
protected
disclosure
does
not
include
“a
communication concerning policy decisions that
lawfully exercise discretionary authority” unless the
employee also reasonably believes that the
communication evidences any situation specified in 5
U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8). 5 U.S.C. § 2302(a)(2)(D).
An appellant may show a protected disclosure
and/or protected activity was a contributing factor in
her removal by establishing the “knowledge/timing
test” – i.e., that the official taking the action knew of
the disclosures and took the action within a period of
time such that a reasonable person could conclude
that the disclosure was a contributing factor in the
personnel action. See, e.g., Strader v. Department of
Agriculture, 475 Fed. App’x 316, 321 (Fed. Cir. 2012).
If the appellant fails to satisfy the “knowledge-timing”
test, the Board will consider any relevant evidence on
the contributing factor question, including the
strength or weakness of the agency’s reasons for
taking the personnel action, whether the
whistleblowing or activity was personally directed at
44a
the responsible officials, and whether those
individuals had a desire or motive to retaliate against
the appellant. Rumsey v. Department of Justice, 120
M.S.P.R. 259, ¶ 26 (2013).
The appellant failed to prove she made protected
disclosures
The appellant alleges she made protected
disclosures in April, May, and June 2017 regarding
alleged financial improprieties and conflict of interest
violations. WAF-5, Tab 15 at 3. As discussed below, I
find the appellant has failed to establish she had a
reasonable belief that she was disclosing a violation
of law, rule, or regulation with respect to any of her
allegations.
In general, I find the appellant’s testimony not
credible.8 See Hillen v. Department of the Army, 35
M.S.P.R. 453, 458-462 (1987). Throughout both her
direct and cross examinations, her testimony was
To resolve credibility issues, an administrative judge must first
identify the factual questions in dispute; second, summarize all
of the evidence on each disputed question of fact; third, state
which version he or she believes; and, fourth, explain in detail
why the chosen version was more credible than the other version
or versions of the event. Numerous factors, which will be
considered in more detail below, must be considered in making
and explaining a credibility determination. These include: (1)
The witness's opportunity and capacity to observe the event or
act in question; (2) the witness's character; (3) any prior
inconsistent statement by the witness; (4) a witness's bias, or
lack of bias; (5) the contradiction of the witness's version of
events by other evidence or its consistency with other evidence;
(6) the inherent improbability of the witness's version of events;
and (7) the witness's demeanor. Hillen v. Department of the
Army, 35 M.S.P.R. 453, 458-462 (1987).
45a
meandering, confused, internally inconsistent, and
often nonresponsive to the questions being asked. I-6
AF, Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5); see also Hillen,
35 M.S.P.R. at 458-62. She also constantly
equivocated or refused to admit to facts she believed
were adverse to her claims, despite their obvious
veracity. Id. Additionally, I find her testimony
regarding the perceived problems with PPAD duties
and budget activity wholly unreliable. Her suspicions
and conclusions regarding OASCR’s budget
particularly lacked credibility and reliability, as they
were nebulous, unsupported, often nonsensical, and
conflicted with contemporaneous emails. Id. Her
hearing testimony along with the overwhelming
credible evidence of record indicates that the
appellant simply did not understand how to perform
the budget-related duties of the PPAD Director
position and did not have a reasonable basis to believe
she was disclosing any (b)(8)-covered concerns.
Conflicts of Interest
The appellant alleges that, beginning in April
2017, she disclosed to Scott and others that DavisWright’s serving as a COR and also as PPAD Team
Lead could violate conflict of interest rules and
requirements for internal management controls.9
WAF-5, Tab 15 at 3. By way of explanation, the
appellant testified that Davis-Wright should not be
In her jurisdictional response, the appellant alleged DavisWright’s dual role could violate GAO-14-704G Principles 10.03,
10.12, 10.13, and 10.14, as well as OMB Circulars A-11 and A123, which she states are federal rules mandating segregation of
duties to reduce the risk of fraud. WAF-1, Tab 5 at 9.
46a
permitted to both pay invoices regarding the IAA
services and then also later reconcile or supervise
reconciliation of the invoices to the payments logged
in FMMI. I-6 AF, Tab 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5).
First, the overwhelming credible evidence of
record establishes that Davis-Wright did not
authorize payment to the contractors. Davis-Wright
credibly testified that, as the COR, she is responsible
for certifying that the invoiced work was performed in
accordance with the contract. I-6 AF, Tab 43 (HR, Vol.
3). Specifically, she testified that she reviews the
invoices uploaded in FMMI and certifies them,
sending them to the Contracting Officer (CO) for
review and approval of payment. Id. She
unequivocally testified that she does not authorize
payment the invoices herself. Id. Her credible
testimony is corroborated by Scott, who also testified
unequivocally that Davis-Wright does not pay the
contractors. I6 AF, Tabs 39, 41 (HR Vols. 1 and 2).
Additionally, Davis-Wright’s COR certification letter
states that she is to “Review invoices, vouchers, and
receiving reports for acceptability to include verifying
that the products and/or services indicated, hours
listed, and any explanation of other direct costs that
define what was received.” I-3 AF, Tab 37 at 12. Both
Davis-Wright and Scott testified that the CO in the
agency’s contracting office gives final approval for the
payment and directs payment of the invoice. I6 AF,
Tabs 39 and 43 (HR Vols. 1 and 3).
By contrast, the appellant’s testimony regarding
this issue was internally inconsistent and confusing
at best. I-6 AF, Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5); see
also Hillen, 35 M.S.P.R. at 458-62. Despite eventually
acknowledging that Davis-Wright did not both certify
the invoices and pay the contractors, she nevertheless
47a
argued that she disclosed a “red flag” to management
regarding separation of duties and “management
controls.” Id. However, she also testified that a “red
flag” indicates only that more research is needed on a
particular transaction, not that a violation of law,
rule, or regulation had necessarily occurred. Id.
Her testimony is also inconsistent with
contemporaneous emails indicating the appellant was
primarily concerned with the large amount of time
Davis-Wright’s COR duties took up. Hillen, 35
M.S.P.R. at 458-62. Throughout the first half of 2017,
the appellant attempted to have the COR duties
shifted from Davis-Wright to other PPAD or Program
Office employees (e.g., EID, EAD). On April 13, 2017,
Scott emailed the appellant a reminder that Sypert is
registered for COR training that month. I-3 AF, Tab
37 at 19. She stated “This will provide [Davis-Wright]
with much needed assistance regarding EID and
Martin Miser contracts.” Id. The appellant responded
immediately: “Thank you Winona. I will coordinate
and ensure [Sypert] takes this training.” Id.
Her efforts continued throughout FY 2017,
primarily focusing on having the COR duties shifted
entirely to the Program Offices that held the
contracts. On August 3, 2017, Scott asked Richard
Jiron, Acting Director of the Office of Procurement
and Property Management (OPPM), “Should the COR
for a particular contract actually work in the program
area where the contract originates (e.g., EID) or can
they be in our PPAD office? Please let me know your
thoughts.” I-3 AF, Tab 37 at 22-23. Jiron responded:
“The important thing is the COR has knowledge of
contract requirements to allow them to provide proper
contract oversight. While it is preferred that they be
part of the program office it is not necessary.” Id. at
48a
22. Scott immediately forwarded his message to the
appellant, which I find indicates she asked the
question at the appellant’s behest. Id. The appellant
responded:
I would like to inform you that Dianne being
the COR for over 10 contracts, including the
EID contract (currently with 6 vendors to
increase by 10 more vendors) takes her away
from fulfilling other essential duties as a team
lead for the division. As you are aware of
invoice review and approval is extremely time
consuming when it involves several vendors.
And with the increase in the number of vendors
for the EID contract Dianne will have a major
overload of invoices that have strict timeframes
for review and approval.
Therefore, I recommend that if the COR
functions are to stay within PPAD, we do one
of the following:
1. Split the contracts Dianne is the COR for
into 3 areas 1. EID Contract; 2. Conflict/ERCD
Contracts; and 3. OASCR Contracts. This will
require for PPAD personnel to take the
required training and get designated by OPPM
as COR. Each of the designated CORs will have
to coordinate/track with OASCR managers the
BPAs funding; OR
2. Hire or re-assign someone (preferably
someone who is already a COR) within OASCR
to be the COR for these contracts. This
person(s) will coordinate/track with OASCR
managers the BPAs funding.
I-3 AF, Tab 37 at 21. The appellant identified this
49a
email as one of her disclosures of a conflict of interest.
However, it is clear from the face of the email and also
the context that she did not raise any such issues
here. Id. Rather, she sought to simply split the duties
up amongst PPAD employees to, again, lighten DavisWright’s load. Id.
Finally, the appellant also testified that she had
“heard”
OASCR
had
made
unauthorized
commitments in the past and warned Scott that she
believed the failure to have clear “segregation of
duties” regarding COR responsibilities could lead to
more unauthorized commitments. I-6 AF, Tabs 45
and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5). She testified that OASCR
had to “start looking at functions and ensuring
invoices paid and invoices actually assessed by
program managers” to ensure the service was actually
received. Id. She failed, however, to establish that the
prior violations she had heard about were at all
related to the issue she raised about Davis-Wright’s
duties.
The appellant questioned Scott during the hearing
about a 2015 OIG report finding that OASCR made
improper payments of over $2 million pursuant to
improper contracts. I-6 AF, Tab 39 (HR Vol. 1). The
report, OIG Audit Report 50099-0001-12, issued
September 14, 2015,10 determined that OASCR
entered into unauthorized contracts with 10 vendors
between FY 2009 and FY 2013 because it did not use
The report is publicly available and discussed at length during
the hearing. Therefore, I take official notice thereof. See 5 C.F.R.
§ 1201.64.
50a
a warranted CO to make the contract.11 12 See
www.oversight.gov/sites/default/files/oig-reports/
50099-0001-12.pdf (“2015 OIG Report”). The
contracts were therefore unauthorized commitments
and the payments totaling $704,000 made thereunder
were improper. Id. at 2. OIG further found that
OASCR made 130 payments, totaling over $1.94
million, for which it could not provide adequate
documentation of the contract under which the
payments were made. Id. Those payments were
therefore also deemed to be improper due to the lack
of documentation.13 Id. Scott confirmed these were
the general findings of the report and testified that it
indicated the former OASCR leadership did not
understand how to correctly document its contract
activities. I-6 AF, Tab 30 (HR Vol. 1).
I find the appellant’s testimony and reference to
the OIG findings lends little weight to her allegation
that she had a reasonable belief Davis-Wright’s duties
An agency can obligate funds pursuant to a contract only
“when there is supporting evidence of a binding agreement
between the agency and another party.” See 2015 OIG Report at
2.
Though not cited as a violation, OIG also warned that OASCR
could not provide adequate support for two General Ledger (G/L)
adjustments totaling $834,000” “because OASCR had not
established appropriate internal controls over G/L adjustments.”
See OIG 2015 Report at 7. However, OIG stated that, in March
2015, “OASCR established internal control procedures for G/L
adjustments in compliance with internal agency regulations. Id.
at 9.
OMB Circular A-123 defines improper payments as those in
which the agency is “unable to discern whether a payment was
proper as a result of insufficient documentation.” See 2015 OIG
Report at 2.
51a
violated law, rule, or regulation. There is no
indication that the appellant believed or disclosed
that the vendor contracts during her tenure were
improperly entered into without authority. Nor does
this or any other of the OIG’s findings relate in any
way to the alleged conflict of interest. See generally,
2015 OIG Report. I find the appellant’s confusing and
inconsistent testimony at best evidences her lack of
basic understanding PPAD’s role in the IAA contract
process. I credit Scott and Pirchio’s consistent
testimony that the PPAD Director should have had a
better understanding of the IAA process and would
not reasonably have believed Davis-Wright’s duties
were problematic. AF, Tabs 39 and 43 (HR Vols. 1 and
3). I find, based on the overwhelming, credible
evidence of record, that neither the appellant nor any
reasonable person in her position would have
reasonably believed she was disclosing a violation of
law, rule, or regulation with respect to Davis-Wright’s
duties.
Financial Improprieties and ADA Violations
The appellant also alleged that she repeatedly
disclosed violations of law, rule, or regulation when
she notified Scott and Pirchio of “budgetary and
appropriations problems in OASCR that could
potentially violate the Anti-Deficiency Act and USDA
regulations.” WAF-5, Tab 11 at 6. She alleges that she
“continued to raise concerns about negative cash
balances that meant that contract commitments could
not be honored, and there were appropriations law
violations.” Id. Her disclosures can generally be
summarized as notifications that the OASCR budget
was continually projecting a deficit that could lead to
an ADA violation, and that OASCR management was
52a
inappropriately
shifting
expenses
between
appropriated and reimbursable funding sources to
cover the deficiencies. I find the appellant failed to
establish that she had a reasonable belief that was
disclosing a law, rule, or regulation regarding any of
these communications.
As set forth above, the appellant’s status of funds
reports containing negative balances repeatedly
omitted the expected reimbursable funds OASCR was
due to receive pursuant to its IAAs, despite Scott’s
repeated requests to report these expected receipts as
well. Her communications based on these faulty
projections evidence that she failed to internalize that
tracking IAA modifications and receipts was essential
to balancing the OASCR budget. For example, as late
as September 14, 2017, the appellant emailed Scott:
After our meeting with OCFO in regards to the
appropriated funds and year-end activities, I
tried to locate these in the OASCR procedure(s)
in the OASCR manual and found nothing. So I
asked Dianne and Sequana to provide a listing
of what they have done in the past for closing
out the fiscal year, see below the input from
Dianne and in the attached email Sequana’s.
However none of the activities they provided
include a review of FY 2017 interagency
agreements/ purchase orders (POs) where
funding might still be available but committed
or set aside in the financial system. I'll develop
an SOP for PPAD’s year-end activities. For now
I've given the team specific steps to complete
the activities starting today and I'll be
coordinating these with OCFO closely.
The good news of this is that we might identify
53a
funding that can still be put to use and/or
reduce our deficit. I just don't know how much
at this point.
I-3 AF, Tab 33 at 157. Less than two weeks before the
end of the fiscal year, the appellant essentially states
that she did not know her team had to track IAAs to
ensure OASCR received the appropriate amount of
reimbursable funding.14 I find no logical reason for
her failure to understand why this was necessary. The
appellant’s failure to ensure proper tracking of the
IAA funds created a flurry of chaotic activity at the
end of the fiscal year to modify the IAAs, and led to
Scott counseling the appellant regarding her “11th
hour” efforts to obtain the funds. See, e.g., I-3 AF, Tab
34 at 38. Her exchanges with Scott, Perry, and OCFO
staff reflect her lack of understanding of the IAA
process and further support the conclusion that her
deficient budget projections were simply not
reasonable for a person in her position. The evidence
overwhelmingly establishes that her unjustifiable
failure to factor outstanding reimbursable funds into
her status of funds report was the reason she
continually projected negative year-end balances and
potential ADA violations. I therefore find the
appellant failed to establish a reasonable belief that
she was disclosing a violation of law, rule, or
The appellant is also factually incorrect. Though she reports
that neither Janifer nor Davis-Wright assessed projected IAA
funds as part of their year-end activities, Davis-Wright’s
attached activity list includes ensuring all reimbursable funds
are loaded “from the latest Mods” and obligated as required. I-3
AF, Tab 33 at 158. This is consistent with Pirchio and Scott’s
testimony that PPAD staff, unlike the appellant, knew what
they were doing.
54a
regulation with these projections.
The appellant also failed to establish that she
reasonably believed OASCR was improperly moving
expenses between appropriated and reimbursable
funds during this time period. On September 28,
2017, the appellant exchanged emails with Scott and
Perry regarding various B2 transactions and other
corrections to the budget. She expressed confusion
over the transactions and stated:
All of the B2s, 12 or so, totaling almost $1.5
million dollar are definitely a challenge at the
end of the fiscal year. This is definitely
something that needs to improve in the next
fiscal year. We should not need to be correcting
the funding sources as much as we are trying
to do. This is a red flag during any audit. We
can work in the upcoming fiscal year to do
things differently. In the meantime, I am
trying to send the corrections for the Panum
contract you requested Kirk ($90K) and also
the recoup of $250K used in EID shared,
Dianne is working on this. Without these
corrections we cannot do other B2s.
I-3 AF, Tab 35 at 21. The appellant testified that this
email disclosed to Scott and Perry red flags of
unauthorized commitments and ADA violations. I-6
AF, Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5). I find,
however, that her email on its face, as well the context
of the B2s, indicates the appellant did not have a
reasonable belief this disclosed a (b)(8)-covered
situation. Though the appellant references “red flags”
for an audit, she states only that the process should
be different the following year, not that the
corrections were impermissible. At best, her email
55a
depicts her disagreement with the frequency and
timing of the adjustments rather than a legal concern
about
the
adjustments
themselves.
Such
disagreements are not protected disclosures under
the WPA. See 5 U.S.C. § 2302(a)(2)(D); see also
McCorcle v. Department of Agriculture, 98 M.S.P.R.
363, ¶ 24 (2005).
Regardless, Scott and Pirchio credibly testified
that
OASCR
employees
were
conducting
reimbursable work, such as writing FADs for the
subagencies, and the appellant has failed to present
any credible evidence rebutting that testimony. She
testified that the transactions were inappropriate
because she believed Scott and Perry were facetiously
claiming that certain employees worked on
reimbursable projects in order to “put money back
into” the appropriated fund, i.e. augmenting the funds
in violation of the ADA. I-6 AF, Tabs 45 and 47 (HR
Vols. 4 and 5). Her testimony relates to an instance in
September 2017 in which PPAD discovered that the
wrong employee’s salary had been charged to
reimbursable funds under the 180-Day EEO
Initiative. As the contemporaneous emails reflect,
Dona Marshall was detailed to the 180-Day Initiative
but the agency charged Donna Carter’s salary to the
reimbursable fund instead. See I-3 AF, Tab 34 at 8590. Dona Marshall’s salary for that time period was
erroneously charged to appropriated funds. Id. To
correct this, PPAD staff were directed to adjust the
billing codes on both employees’ timecards to reflect
Donna Carter’s salary billed to the appropriated
funding code and Dona Marshall’s to reimbursable.
Id.
The appellant insinuated that Scott and Perry’s
correction was an attempt to cover up their illegal
56a
actions. I-6 AF, Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5).
She testified that the PPAD staff also tried to cover it
up because they were loyal to Scott and “would do
anything” for her. Id. Again, I find no reasonable basis
for the appellant’s conclusions nor did the appellant
provide any credible evidence supporting her claims.
The contemporaneous emails of record addressing
this issue clearly establish that Scott and Perry were
correcting a simple mistake. I-3 AF, Tab 34 at 85-90.
Based on the clear evidence of record, I find her
conclusion does not indicate a reasonable belief that
she was disclosing (b)(8)-covered wrongdoing.
The appellant also failed to competently explain
why she believed OASCR could not obligate expenses
against its appropriated budget until sufficient IAA
funds were obtained. I-6 AF, Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols.
4 and 5). Her testimony on this issue was confused,
scattered, and generally conclusory without
reasonable support. Id. Again, her testimony
evidenced her lack of understanding of the budget
process rather than any reasonable belief she was
disclosing wrongdoing. Id.
By contrast, I find credible Scott and Pirchio’s
testimony that it was entirely permissible to use any
available OASCR funding, whether appropriated or
reimbursable, to pay reimbursable invoices pending
additional IAA receipts. I-6 AF, Tabs 39 and 43 (HR
Vols. 1 and 3). They consistently explained that the
two sources of funding were part of the single OASCR
budget and thus could be used for appropriate
expenses, provided the full amount of reimbursable
funding was received from the subagencies by the end
of the fiscal year. Id. This involved balancing the
amounts of reimbursable activity being charged
against the appropriated balance with the amount of
57a
reimbursable funds OASCR would receive through
subagency IAAs and modifications thereto. Id. As
Pirchio explained, PPAD modified IAAs to account for
expenses in excess of the original estimates. Id. PPAD
thus ensured the IAAs covered the full amounts
OASCR expended on reimbursable activities and,
therefore, that OASCR would receive the correct
amount of reimbursable funds from the subagencies
before the end of the fiscal year. Id. Pirchio repeatedly
affirmed during questioning that this was permissible
and unequivocally testified that a competent PPAD
Director should have understood how appropriated
and reimbursable funds operated together within the
OASCR budget given the nature of its mission. Id.
Pirchio’s testimony was clear and consistent and,
as the OCFO Budget Director for staff offices, I find
he was competent to explain these matters. I-6 AF,
Tab 43 (HR Vol. 3); see also Hillen, 35 M.S.P.R. at 45862. I further find that he was personally aware of the
bulk of the appellant’s questions and requests for
assistance, as he and his staff were providing budget
execution assistance to PPAD in FY 2017. Id. I
therefore weigh his testimony more heavily than the
appellant’s in determining she did not have a
reasonable belief that she was making protected
disclosures. Id. Pirchio testified that the appellant did
not have the budget skills to be competent in the
PPAD Director position and had not gained those
skills before the agency reassigned her. I-6 AF, Tab
43 (HR Vol. 3). His testimony was reasonable,
unexaggerated, and supported by specific occurrences
during the relevant time period. Id.; see also Hillen,
35 M.S.P.R. at 458-62. For example, on September 13,
2017, the appellant requested Pirchio assist in
figuring out why the OASCR budget had a “negative
58a
balance” of over $25,000 for overtime when OASCR
paid only $647 of overtime that year. See I-3 AF, Tab
34 at 81-82. Pirchio responded that the higher
number was only the plan amount and could be
adjusted up or down. Id. at 81. He therefore
recommended adjusting it down to $1,000. Id. Pirchio
and Scott both testified that the appellant, as
OASCR’s top budget official, should have understood
the difference between a plan amount and an actual
expenditure. I-6 AF, Tabs 39 and 43 (HR Vols. 1 and
3). Pirchio also credibly testified that he had to
repeatedly explain to the appellant that fully
transferring employee salary expenses required two
B2 transactions due to a glitch in FMMI. I-6 AF, Tab
43 (HR Vol. 3). His testimony is consistent with
several emails exchanged in September 2017
indicating the appellant’s negative budget projections
reflected that she had not fully transferred employee
salary expenses to the reimbursable fund despite
having completed these transactions several times
prior to this instant. See, e.g., I-3 AF, Tab 37 at 22.
Pirchio further testified that the appellant did not
appear to understand budget figures and calculations.
I-6 AF, Tab 43 (HR Vol. 3). He pointed to a
particularly confusing email exchange on September
28, 2017, wherein the appellant shifted various large
budget figures around the status of funds report
without any apparent understanding as to what they
represented. I-3 AF, Tab 33 at 59-61. His testimony is
consistent with Scott’s perception that the appellant’s
status of funds and budget projections were
frequently incorrect or unclear. As discussed above,
emails throughout September 2017 evidence the
appellant’s failure to provide accurate budget
information to OASCR senior managers. This
59a
culminated on September 28, 2017 with Scott’s
admonishment to the appellant:
This is unacceptable. This office has never been
in a situation where we did not know what our
spending capabilities are -especially one day
before the close of the FY.
I-3 AF, Tab 35 at 63. I find the appellant’s confusion
and inability to produce accurate budget reports
evidences her lack of understanding of the budget
process, nearly a year into her tenure as PPAD
Director, and supports the conclusion that her alleged
disclosures of potential deficiencies were not
reasonably held.
As support for her allegations, the appellant
testified that, in July 2017 she “learned through her
acquaintances” that the General Accountability Office
(GAO) was inquiring as to whether OASCR
inappropriately
augmented
its
FY
2016
appropriations. I-6 AF, Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4
and 5). She testified she understood that to mean
GAO was concerned OASCR was inappropriately
adding money to its appropriated funds. Id. The
appellant testified that she believed modifying
employee timecards was inappropriately augmenting
appropriations and appeared “one to one” with what
the GAO was investigating.
The referenced GAO inquiry addressed USDA’s
Office of Civil Rights (OCR), Rural Development (RD),
and Food and Nutrition Service (FNS) subagencies
funding the salaries of one or more employees in the
respective subagencies’ executive office (i.e. OCR
appropriations paid the salary of one or more OASCR
employees). I-3 AF, Tab 30 at 27. The report, which
the appellant testified she had read “later,” was
60a
issued on September 26, 2017, well after she began
having concerns. Id.; see also I-6 AF, Tabs 45 and 47
(HR Vols. 4 and 5). However, USDA’s Associate
General Counsel (AGC), submitted a response to the
GAO’s request for information on April 6, 2017,
during the appellant’s PPAD tenure. I-3 AF, Tab 30
at 27-28. It is therefore plausible the appellant was
aware at least generally of the issues raised by the
GAO.
In its response to the GAO, USDA admitted that
the leadership office employees were performing their
regular duties rather than work falling under the
subagency’s broader mission. I-3 AF, Tab 30 at 27-28.
However, it argued the practice had been ongoing as
far back as FY 2012 and done openly, in that it was
reported to the House Committee on Appropriations
on several occasions without response. Id.
Nevertheless, in its September 2017 legal opinion, the
GAO determined USDA violated the purpose statute
in FY 2015 and FY 2016 by improperly augmenting
the appropriations of the leadership offices with
appropriations of its parent subagency. Id. at 34. The
GAO advised USDA to adjust the expenditures to be
charged against the correct office’s appropriations. Id.
The GAO further stated that, should the leadership
office’s appropriated funds be insufficient to cover the
adjusted expenses, USDA should report it as an ADA
violation. Id.
I find the GAO inquiry and the appellant’s
knowledge thereof fails to support her allegation that
she had reasonably believed OASCR was violating the
law at the time of her disclosures. The appellant
admitted that she was not an appropriations law
expert, and that she had only heard about this issue
from her OCFO liaison, Sonya Ayerdi, and the “GAO
61a
team” in the OGC Appropriations Law division. I-6
AF, Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5). I find a
reasonable person in the appellant’s position would
have understood the difference between GAO’s
concern (employees paid by an office’s appropriations
for which they did not perform work) and OASCR’s
charging the salaries of employees who were actually
detailed to reimbursable work to subagencies
receiving that service. The appellant’s testimony that
she was seeing a “one to one” comparison between the
two situations is simply not reasonable.
The appellant also referred back to the 2015 OIG
Report as support for her belief that the IAA
modifications constituted unauthorized commitments
and that OASCR was inappropriately comingling
funds. The appellant’s testimony was neither detailed
nor coherent in this regard. See generally, I-6 AF,
Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5). Rather, she
appeared to conflate all of OASCR’s budget practices
under the headings of unauthorized commitments
and ADA violations without any logical explanation.
Id. The appellant’s allegations regarding the B2
transactions between appropriated and reimbursable
expenses were wholly unrelated to the concerns
addressed by the either the OIG or GAO. She did not,
for example, allege any IAAs or vendor contracts were
improperly entered into by an unwarranted
employee. Nor did she alleged that OASCR otherwise
lacked documentation supporting its contractual
payments to vendors performing reimbursable
activities. During her testimony, the appellant
referenced a May 2017 exchange between OASCR,
OCFO and OGC regarding the timing of signatures on
IAA modifications. See I-3 AF, Tab 27 at 128-46.
Though it is unclear whether the appellant alleges
62a
that issue supports her allegation that she had a
reasonable belief in her disclosures, I find it does not.
On or about May 25, 2017, Pirchio informed the
appellant that she should increase IAA sales orders to
equal the amounts of the most recent modifications
even if the subagencies had not yet signed the mods.
I-3 AF, Tab 31 at 27. Pirchio testified that FMMI
contained an allowable exception in this regard that
other USDA offices occasionally use. I-6 AF, Tab 43
(HR Vol. 3). Ayerdi, however, objected to increasing
the sales orders without fully executed IAA
modifications. I-3 AF, Tab 31 at 26. Accordingly, on
May 26, 2017, Pirchio contacted OGC for an opinion
on whether OCFO could assign reimbursable budget
authority to OASCR based on IAA modifications that
had not yet been fully executed.
The appellant did not present evidence
corroborating her testimony that she believed this
practice was impermissible. Hillen, 35 M.S.P.R. at
458-62. Her contemporaneous statements in this
email thread exhibit only her desire that OGC
promptly respond to the inquiry so OCFO could
increase the funding availability and investigations
could proceed. I-3 AF, Tab 27 at 145. Furthermore, I
credit Pirchio’s testimony that OCFO was trying to
use an entirely permissible function in FMMI. His
testimony is corroborated by the contemporaneous
emails indicating that this was a question only of
whether to exercise that legal authority given the
competing risk. Id. at 143-46; see also Hillen, 35
M.S.P.R. at 458-62. Ayerdi’s objections therefore are
not protected disclosures or activity, and do not
support the appellant’s allegation that she had a
reasonable belief she was making protected
disclosures about other topics.
63a
Finally, the appellant argues her beliefs were
reasonable because the successor PPAD Director later
determined OASCR had engaged in financial
improprieties during the time period at issue with
respect to IAA reimbursable funding. Specifically,
Lorena McElwain, OASCR’s Chief of Staff beginning
in late-October 2018, directed current PPAD Director,
Kate Baun, to conduct a forensic accounting of IAA
funding following Baun’s concerns of improprieties. I6 AF, Tab 45 (HR Vol. 4). McElwain testified that
Baun spent approximately two months meticulously
sorting through several prior years of IAA funding
transactions and determined that PPAD had been
“comingling” subagency IAA payments and did not
track how much of each subagency’s money went to
pay for their own particular costs. Id. She testified
that, at the conclusion of the accounting, Baun
determined the subagencies were collectively due
reimbursement for $2.3 million in unobligated funds
that were left over from prior year IAA payments. Id.
I find McElwain’s testimony does not indicate the
appellant had a reasonable belief she was disclosing
(b)(8)-covered wrongdoing during her tenure. First, it
does not appear that the appellant made alleged
disclosures about the “single pot” of reimbursable
funding; rather, she was concerned about the shifting
of expenses between reimbursable and appropriated
funds. Regardless, neither the appellant nor
McElwain identified what the “single pot” practice
allegedly violated. McElwain testified generally that
PPAD’s activities violated “regulations” when it
pooled the reimbursable funds without keeping an
accounting of individual subagency expenses and
payments. I-3 AF, Tab 45 (HR Vol. 4). I afforded this
testimony little weight. Hillen, 35 M.S.P.R at 458-62.
64a
First, Baun’s observation regarding the “comingling”
of reimbursable funds was well known by OASCR and
OCFO senior managers during the appellant’s tenure
and thereafter. The credible, contemporaneous
evidence of record establishes that the concern at the
time was not that PPAD’s practices were legally
improper, but rather the difficulty PPAD faced in
determining how much unobligated funding
subagencies were due. This is the very reason the PIP
required the appellant to reconcile the FY 2015 and
FY 2016 billings. This is also consistent with the
appellant’s assertion that ASCR Leonard directed her
to “clean up the mess” in PPAD upon her hire. I-6 AF,
Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5). There is no
indication then, nor when Baun later “discovered” the
issue, that the accounting practices did or were feared
to have caused a legal violation. I therefore find
McElwain’s testimony does not support the
appellant’s alleged reasonable belief that she was
making a protected disclosure of wrongdoing.15
In making these findings, I note that the
appellant’s concerns appear to have subjectively
weighed heavily on her. However, given the totality of
the evidence establishing her comparative lack of
understanding of the budget process for someone in
McElwain also testified that Baun determined some of the
reimbursable funding was used for staff travel and training
when it should only have been used for EEO case processing. I-6
AF, Tab 45 (HR Vol. 4). However, she failed to testify as to when
this was found to have occurred and whether the issue had been
either reported or found to have violated any law, rule, or
regulation. Id. Regardless, the appellant’s allegations did not
involve this issue and I do not find Baun’s determination to make
it more likely that the appellant had a reasonable belief in her
own disclosures.
65a
the PPAD Director position, I find a reasonable
person in her position would not have believed she
was disclosing a violation of law, rule, or regulation
with respect to any of her alleged disclosures.
Accordingly, I find the appellant has failed to meet
her burden of proof under 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8).
The appellant engaged in protected activity under 5
U.S.C. § 2302(b)(9)(C)
The appellant’s July 2017 contact with OIG
regarding OASCR’s budget activities constitutes
protected activity under 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(9)(C).16
Accordingly, she has met her burden of proof for this
element.
The appellant’s protected activity was not
contributing factor the personnel actions at issue
a
The appellant’s FY 2017 performance rating,
placement on a PIP, and proposed removal constitute
personnel actions under the statute. See 5 U.S.C. §
2302(a)(2)(A)(iii), (viii). The appellant alleged Scott
became aware that she disclosed information to OIG
regarding OASCR budget improprieties in or around
late-August 2017, and that these subsequent actions
were in retaliation for that protected activity. During
jurisdictional briefings, I found the appellant’s
allegation of Scott’s knowledge was nonfrivolous
based on her allegation that Pirchio, who spoke with
Scott frequently during that time period, was aware
of her OIG contact as of late-August 2017 and would
Though I found her concerns raised to OASCR and OCFO, and
therefore to OIG, do not amount to protected disclosures under
Section 2302(b)(8), that analysis is irrelevant to whether these
activities are protected under Section 2302(b)(9)(C).
66a
have told her about it. However, following a hearing
on the merits of her allegations, I find the appellant
failed to establish Scott’s knowledge of her OIG
contact by a preponderance of the evidence.
Scott credibly testified that she was unaware the
appellant contacted the OIG about OASCR’s budget
practices during this time period. I-6 AF, Tab 39 (HR
Vol. 1). She testified that she was never contacted or
interviewed by OIG regarding these matters. Id. This
is consistent with the appellant’s own testimony that
she did not inform Scott of her OIG contact and that
OIG maintained her anonymity. I-6 AF, Tabs 45 and
47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5); see also Hillen, 35 M.S.P.R. 45862. It is further consistent with the appellant’s
testimony that she had only “informal” conversations
with OIG personnel regarding this matter in July,
August, and September 2017, and her allegation that
she did not provide OIG with “substantiating
evidence” until late-September 2017 and during her
February 18, 2018 interview. Id.
Scott also testified that Pirchio did not inform her
of the appellant’s OIG contact. I-6 AF, Tab 39 (HR
Vol. 1). Her testimony is consistent with Pirchio’s
credible testimony that the appellant notified him
that she went to OIG about her concerns that OASCR
was engaging in improper budget activities. I-6 AF,
Tab 43 (HR Vol. 3); see also Hillen, 35 M.S.P.R. 45862. He credibly recalled that he did not find any merit
to the appellant’s concerns and would not have shared
with Scott that the appellant engaged in this activity.
Id. The appellant failed to present any credible
evidence supporting her allegation that Pirchio would
have told Scott about the OIG contact, or that Scott
was otherwise aware of her protected activity. The
appellant argues that, during the September 5, 2017
67a
staff meeting, Scott looked directly at her when she
said “no one will accuse me of an ADA violation.” I-6
AF, Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5). She alleges
this occurred only one week after informing Pirchio of
her OIG contact. Id. However, she also alleged that
Scott made the same comment during a meeting on
August 17, 2017, which was before the appellant
informed Pirchio of her OIG contact. WAF-5, Tab 11
at 7, 5. During the hearing, the appellant further
testified that Scott “said that a lot” during this time
period. I-6 AF, Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5).
Were Scott even referring to the appellant with any of
these comments, I find it far more likely that was due
to the appellant’s frequent, incorrect projections of
budget deficiencies that she had been providing since
June 2017. I weigh more heavily Scott and Pirchio’s
credible, consistent testimony than the appellant’s
unsupported allegation. Hillen, 35 M.S.P,R. at 45862. Accordingly, the appellant failed to establish
Scott’s knowledge of the complaint. Furthermore, the
agency’s evidence supporting the appellant’s
unacceptable performance rating, PIP, and proposed
removal, as discussed in more detail below, is very
strong. I find any inference that could be drawn as her
protected activity contributing to those actions, due to
the fact that the activity directly implicated Scott and
gave her motive to retaliate against the appellant, is
overwhelmingly outweighed by the strength of the
agency’s evidence supporting its personnel actions.
Finally, the appellant does not allege, nor does the
record otherwise reflect that King was aware of her
OIG contact prior to any of the personnel actions at
issue. King credibly testified that he was unaware of
her OIG contact and the appellant has failed to
present evidence rebutting his credible testimony. I-6
68a
AF, Tab 41 (HR Vol. 2). As such, the appellant has
failed to establish her OIG contact was a contributing
factor to any of the personnel actions at issue in her
whistleblower appeal.
Accordingly, the appellant’s request for corrective
action is DENIED.
Demotion Appeal DC-0432-20-0011-I-6
The agency has proven its charge of unacceptable
performance under chapter 43 To prevail in an appeal
of a performance-based action under chapter 43, the
agency must establish, by substantial evidence:
the
Office of
Personnel Management
(OPM) approved its performance appraisal
system and any significant changes to it;
the agency communicated to the appellant the
performance standards and critical elements of
her position;
the appellant’s performance standards are
valid under 5 U.S.C. § 4302(b)(1);
the agency warned the appellant of the
inadequacies of her performance during the
appraisal period and gave her a reasonable
opportunity
to
demonstrate
acceptable
17
performance;
the appellant’s performance remained
unacceptable in one or more of the critical
elements for which she was provided an
opportunity
to
demonstrate
acceptable
performance.
The Board has described the right to a reasonable opportunity
to improve as a substantive rather than procedural right. Towne,
at ¶ 8.
69a
See Santos v. National Aeronautics and Space
Administration, 990 F.3d 1355, 1362 (Fed. Cir.
2021); Lee v. Environmental Protection Agency,
115 M.S.P.R. 533, ¶ 5 (2010). Substantial evidence
is defined as the “degree of relevant evidence that
a reasonable person, considering the record as a
whole, might accept as adequate to support a
conclusion, even though other reasonable persons
might disagree.” 5 C.F.R. § 1201.4(p). Substantial
evidence is a lower standard of proof than a
preponderance of the evidence. Id. Upon
consideration of the record evidence, I find that the
agency has proven each of the following elements
of its charge of unacceptable performance by
substantial evidence.
OPM approved the performance appraisal system
The Board ordinarily presumes the agency is in
compliance with the requirement that OPM approve
its performance appraisal system and any significant
changes made thereto, unless the appellant alleges
otherwise. See Adamsen v. Department of Agriculture,
116 M.S.P.R. 331, ¶ 6 (2011). The parties stipulated
that, on August 21, 2007, the Office of Personnel
Management (OPM) issued a letter to the agency
approving its new performance management system
for non-SES employees and that this system was in
effect during the relevant time period. I-6 AF, Tabs 25
and 31 (Stipulations). The letter is also included in
the agency’s response file. I-1 AF, Tab 12 at 76.
Accordingly, I find the agency has met its burden of
proof regarding this element.
70a
The agency communicated to the appellant the
performance standards and critical elements of her
position
The parties have stipulated that the appellant
received and signed for her FY 2017 performance plan
on February 6, 2017. I-6 AF, Tabs 25 and 31
(Stipulations).
Furthermore,
the
appellant’s
signature appears on the performance plan indicating
her receipt thereof on that date. I-1 AF, Tab 12 at 41.
The performance plan sets forth the critical elements
and performance standards for her position. Id. at 4253. Accordingly, I find the agency has met its burden
of proof regarding this element.
The appellant’s performance standards are valid
under 5 U.S.C. § 4302(b)(1)
Performance standards must, to the maximum
extent feasible, permit the accurate appraisal of
performance based on objective criteria. 5 U.S.C.
§ 4302(b)(1). Performance standards must be
reasonable, realistic, attainable, and clearly stated in
writing. See Towne v. Department of the Air Force, 120
M.S.P.R. 239, ¶ 21 (2013). Performance standards
should also be specific enough to provide an employee
with a firm benchmark toward which to aim their
performance, and they must be sufficiently precise so
as to invoke general consensus as to their meaning
and content. Id. Performance standards are not valid
if they do not set forth the minimum level of
performance that an employee must achieve to avoid
removal under chapter 43. Id.; see also Henderson v.
National Aeronautics & Space Administration, 116
M.S.P.R. 96, ¶ 9 (2011). An agency, moreover, can
cure a facially vague performance standard by
71a
fleshing out the standard through oral and written
communication in a PIP notice and during the PIP.
See Towne, 120 M.S.P.R. 239, ¶ 23.
Provided these standards are met, the Board will
defer to managerial discretion in determining what
employees must do in order to perform acceptably in
their positions. See Lee, 115 M.S.P.R. 553 at ¶ 29.
Thus, an agency is free to set its performance
standards as high as it thinks appropriate, provided
those standards are objective and meet the other
requirements of 5 U.S.C. § 4302(b)(1). See Jackson v.
Department of Veterans Affairs, 97 M.S.P.R. 13, ¶ 14
(2004). Accordingly, the focus of the Board’s inquiry
in a Chapter 43 appeal is whether the standards set
by the agency “measure the performance of the job in
question on the basis of the objective criteria set forth
by the agency.” Id. Provided this standard it met, the
Board will defer to the agency’s structuring of an
employee’s performance standards. Id. Moreover,
where the position in question involves technical
expertise, an assessment of the employee’s
performance is “not susceptible to performance
standards that are strictly objective, and [its]
standards may require a degree of subjective
judgment that would not be necessary or proper in a
position of less professional or technical nature.”
Greer v. Department of the Army, 79 M.S.P.R. 477, 484
(1998).
The appellant’s performance standards are valid
The agency has met its burden of proving its
performance standards are valid. I find the FY 2017
Plan explicitly details the standards for acceptable
performance
in
the
Mission
Results
and
Communications elements. For Mission Results, the
72a
Plan lists out four broad areas of responsibilities with
numerous specific tasks listed under each that the
appellant is responsible for completing to be
considered Fully Successful. I-1 AF, Tab 8 at 43. As
most relevant to this appeal, the Plan details the
appellant’s Financial Management responsibility as
including managing the IAA process, providing timely
SOF reports, processing procurement and contracting
requests, and verifying and making prompt
payments. Id. The Plan further states the actions
must be completed accurately and within required
timeframes. Id. Likewise, for Communications, the
Plan sets forth numerous specific responsibilities
with clear directions thereto. Id. at 49. For example,
the Plan requires the appellant’s written responses to
be “concise, clear, factually accurate, logically
ordered, and substantially free of errors.” Id. It
further requires oral responses to be “clear, courteous
and directly address the issues and questions.” Id. It
also required her to maintain professional
relationships and interactions with staff and
customers, provide technical expertise on assigned
programs, continually inform management of
sensitive issues, and adjusting priorities to changing
demands. Id. While the performance plan certainly
leaves room for interpretation, I find such flexibility
is not fatal to the validity of the standard. Rather, it
is necessary given the nature of the appellant’s work.
I find the performance plan sufficient to provide the
appellant with a “firm benchmark” toward which to
aim her performance, and that it is “sufficiently
precise so as to invoke general consensus as to their
meaning and content.” See Towne v. Department of
the Airforce, 120 M.S.P.R. 239, ¶21 (2013).
Accordingly, I find the agency has met its burden of
73a
proof for this element.
The agency proved the appellant’s performance was
unacceptable prior to the PIP and that it warned her
of her performance deficiencies
As a threshold matter, the appellant argues that
she was not put on notice of her deficient performance
during the FY 2017 performance year (i.e., before
receiving the October 2017 PIP). I find this argument
unavailing. First, the Board does not require notice of
deficiencies prior to an employee’s receipt of a PIP.
Rather, the Board has long held that the PIP itself
suffices to notify an employee of deficiencies. See
Santos, 990 F.3d at 1362, citing Harris v. Securities
and Exchange Commission, 972 F.3d 1307, 1316 (Fed.
Cir. 2020). To the extent the appellant alleges the
agency is subjected to a particular calendar deadline
of September 30 (the end of a performance year) to
issue a PIP and/or notify an employee of unacceptable
performance, the appellant provides no legal or
evidentiary support for this argument. The Board’s
precedent simply does not place so specific a deadline
on the notification requirement. Id.
Substantively, I find the agency proved by clear
and convincing evidence that the appellant’s
performance was deficient prior to the PIP and that
the agency notified her of her deficiencies. Regarding
Mission Results, the PIP notified the appellant that
she failed to effectively manage the OASCR budget
and keep up with OASCR fiscal responsibilities, failed
to process IAAs in a timely manner, and missed
several significant deadlines. I-1 AF, Tab 12 at 3031. The PIP detailed 12 examples of these alleged
deficiencies. Regarding the budget and fiscal
responsibilities, King included several examples of
74a
her failure to clearly and accurately report budget
breakdowns and budget adjustments while
attempting to close out the fiscal year in September
2017. Id. at 30-33. I find the record amply supports
King’s examples as set forth in the PIP as well as his
statement as to the appellant’s overall unsuccessful
performance in this critical element. As discussed in
detail above, the record is replete with emails
between the appellant, Scott, Pirchio, and others
wherein the appellant presents confusing and
inaccurate budget projections, exhibiting a clear lack
of competency in that aspect of her duties. These
examples alone constitute substantial evidence of the
appellant’s unacceptable performance in this critical
element.
Nevertheless, the remaining examples are
similarly supported by substantial evidence.
Regarding IAAs, King stated the process was
confusing and chaotic under her supervision,
particularly regarding modifications, leading to
complaints from subagencies. I-1 AF, Tab 12 at 30-33.
Scott credibly testified that civil rights directors in
Forrest Service, Food Safety and Inspection Service,
and Food and Nutrition Service all complained about
the IAA process that year. I-6 AF, Tab 39 (HR Vol. 1).
The agency produced a September 18, 2017 email
from Ted Gutman (FS Director) stating “I wanted to
respond about this year’s processing of IAA’s and
modifications which has been one of the most difficult
since OASCR took over processing of investigations
and charged additional fees for all FADs.” AF, Tab I3 AF, Tab 33 at 74-75; see also Hillen, 35 M.S.P.R. at
458-62. The appellant testified that the directors’
complaints were unrelated to actions during her
tenure there. I find, however, her testimony directly
75a
conflicts with the contemporaneous emails of record
and find that it does not rebut the agency’s
substantial evidence supporting its allegations. Id.
Finally, regarding untimely work product, King
referenced the appellant’s failure to timely or
competently create a budget book, failure to promptly
effectuate a settlement agreement and contract
payment, process supply requests, and failure to
create the FY 2017 A-123 Certification. I-1 AF, Tab
12 at 30-33. Again, the agency presented
contemporaneous emails substantiating these events.
See I-6 AF, Tab 29 at 8. Regarding the budget book,
the appellant alleges the agency provided her the
prior year’s book in hard copy and gave her no
guidance on how to recreate it for FY 2017. I-6 AF,
Tabs 45 and 47 (HR Vols. 4 and 5). She testified that
she therefore started building the budget book from
scratch with
This text is long and has been trimmed here. Open the source document for the complete record.
This is a copy of a public record, reproduced as it was published. It is not legal advice, and it may not be the version a court would rely on. Check the official source before you cite it.