Opinion

David Hendy v. Department of Veterans Affairs

Court
Merit Systems Protection Board
Filed
May 1, 2024
Status
Unpublished
Cited by
0 cases
Authority
More cited than 15.9%

“It is error for the MSPB to not evaluate all the pertinent evidence in determining whether an element of a claim or defense has been proven adequately.”

How later courts described this case

  • “It is error for the MSPB to not evaluate all the pertinent evidence in determining whether an element of a claim or defense has been proven adequately.”

Written by the judges who cited it.

The opinion

UNITED STATES OF AMERICA

MERIT SYSTEMS PROTECTION BOARD

DAVID M. HENDY, DOCKET NUMBER

Appellant, CH-1221-18-0114-W-1

v.

DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS DATE: May 1, 2024

AFFAIRS,

Agency.

THIS ORDER IS NONPRECEDENTIAL 1

David M. Hendy , Chicago, Illinois, pro se.

Zane Perry Schmeeckle , Kansas City, Missouri, for the agency.

BEFORE

Cathy A. Harris, Chairman

Raymond A. Limon, Vice Chairman

REMAND ORDER

The appellant has filed a petition for review of the initial decision, which

dismissed his individual right of action (IRA) appeal for lack of jurisdiction. For

the reasons discussed below, we GRANT the appellant’s petition for review. We

VACATE the initial decision and REMAND the case to the regional office for

further adjudication in accordance with this Remand Order.

1

A nonprecedential order is one that the Board has determined does not add

significantly to the body of MSPB case law. Parties may cite nonprecedential orders,

but such orders have no precedential value; the Board and administrative judges are not

required to follow or distinguish them in any future decisions. In contrast, a

precedential decision issued as an Opinion and Order has been identified by the Board

as significantly contributing to the Board’s case law. See 5 C.F.R. § 1201.117(c).

2

BACKGROUND

Effective June 8, 2016, the appellant resigned from his Industrial Hygienist

position at the agency’s Hines Veterans Affairs (VA) Hospital in Hines, Illinois,

to receive treatment for service-connected injuries. Initial Appeal File (IAF),

Tab 1 at 1-2, Tab 6 at 83. On or around that same day, the appellant met with a

Special Agent in the agency’s Office of Inspector General (OIG) to discuss,

among other things, various safety concerns regarding the facilities and

infrastructure of the Hines VA Hospital that he had identified in his Industrial

Hygienist position. IAF, Tab 6 at 115. The appellant thereafter applied for 5

agency positions in 2016 and 2017, but he was not selected for any positions.

E.g., IAF, Tab 1 at 2, 8-9, 14-22, Tab 6 at 1-2, 7, 26, 56.

On December 14, 2017, the appellant filed this IRA appeal with the Board,

and he requested a hearing. IAF, Tab 1 at 1-3. In an Order on Jurisdiction and

Proof Requirements, the administrative judge informed the appellant that there

was a question whether the Board has jurisdiction over this appeal, apprised him

of the elements and burden of proving jurisdiction in an IRA appeal, and ordered

him to file a statement with accompanying evidence on the jurisdictional issue.

IAF, Tab 3.

In response, the appellant submitted letters from the Office of Special

Counsel (OSC) concerning a complaint that he had filed against the agency. IAF,

Tab 9 at 19-21, Tab 12 at 26-28. In a January 11, 2018 letter, OSC informed the

appellant of its preliminary determination to close its inquiry into his complaint.

IAF, Tab 9 at 19-21. In February 15, 2018 letters, OSC notified the appellant of

its final determination to close its inquiry into his complaint and apprised him of

the right to file an IRA appeal seeking corrective action from the Board for

alleged prohibited personnel practices under 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8) and (b)(9).

IAF, Tab 12 at 26-28. In pertinent part, OSC described his complaint as alleging

that, in his Industrial Hygienist position, he reported safety violations

(specifically “mold issues”) to agency officials and to the agency’s OIG. IAF,

3

Tab 9 at 19-20. OSC also noted that the appellant provided a Report of Contact

that was signed by his supervisor, and he alleged that his supervisor falsified and

submitted this report to human resources to block his selection for any positions

for which he had applied. IAF, Tab 9 at 23, Tab 12 at 27.

The appellant asserted in response to the jurisdiction order that the agency

perceived him as a whistleblower because he, among other things, (1) reported

insufficient resources for the Industrial Hygienist position, (2) complained that

his veterans’ preference rights were being violated, (3) filed an OIG complaint

that resulted in an investigation, (4) conducted a preliminary investigation into an

ongoing mold problem, (5) documented exposure to mold, asbestos, and

unsanitary conditions, and (6) reported safety issues concerning a steam tunnel

system and environmental and safety hazards concerning a hazardous waste shed.

IAF, Tab 6 at 1-23, Tab 9 at 1-13, Tab 10 at 1-13. He also claimed that he was

perceived as a whistleblower because he previously raised a whistleblower

reprisal claim against the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center in a prior OSC

complaint 1 and Board appeal. 2 IAF, Tab 6 at 3, 8, 10-14, 18, 20, 22-23, Tab 9

at 5, 8, Tab 10 at 4. The appellant alleged that because he was perceived as a

whistleblower, the agency did not select him for various positions in 2016 and

2017, his supervisor falsified a Report of Contact and subjected him to a hostile

work environment (including a change in working conditions and harassment),

and a Director canceled a meeting with him. IAF, Tab 6 at 1-23, Tab 9 at 1-13,

Tab 10 at 1-13. The agency requested the Board to dismiss this appeal for lack of

jurisdiction. IAF, Tab 8 at 4-5, 9.

1

The appellant asserted that his prior OSC complaint was filed on August 23, 2013, and

was closed on February 25, 2014. IAF, Tab 6 at 2, 122.

2

The appellant’s prior Board appeal against the agency concerned his probationary

termination from a position at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, and it was

dismissed as settled. David Hendy v. Department of Veterans Affairs, MSPB Docket

No. CH-315H-13-4605-I-2, Final Order (Feb. 19, 2015).

4

Without holding the requested hearing, the administrative judge issued an

initial decision dismissing this appeal for lack of jurisdiction because the

appellant failed to prove that he exhausted his administrative remedies before

OSC. 3 IAF, Tab 13, Initial Decision (ID) at 1, 3-6.

The appellant has filed a petition for review and several supplemental

submissions, the agency has filed a response, and the appellant has filed a reply

brief. Petition for Review (PFR) File, Tabs 6-27, 30, 35.

The appellant has filed a motion to waive the time limit for filing a petition

for review. PFR File, Tab 28. Because the Clerk of the Board granted his two

requests for an extension of time to file a perfected petition for review, PFR File,

Tabs 2-5, we find that his PFR and supplemental submissions were timely filed.

Accordingly, we deny his motion to waive the filing deadline.

The appellant also has filed a motion to waive the time limit for filing a

reply to the agency’s response. PFR File, Tab 35 at 5, Tab 36. We find good

cause to grant his motion based on his explanation and supporting medical

documentation concerning his medical conditions during the relevant time frame,

which resulted in a brief 10-day delay in filing his reply. See Lacy v. Department

of the Navy, 78 M.S.P.R. 434, 437 (1998) (explaining that the Board will find

good cause for waiver of its filing time limits when a party demonstrates that he

suffered from an illness that affected his ability to file on time); see also 5 C.F.R.

§ 1201.114(g).

DISCUSSION OF ARGUMENTS ON REVIEW

The Board’s jurisdiction is limited to those matters over which it has been

given jurisdiction by law, rule, or regulation. Maddox v. Merit Systems

3

To the extent this appeal may have been prematurely filed on December 14, 2017,

IAF, Tab 1, it became ripe for adjudication when OSC issued its February 15, 2018

close-out letter, IAF, Tab 12 at 27-28; see e.g., Jundt v. Department of Veterans Affairs,

113 M.S.P.R. 688, ¶ 7 (2010) (stating that it is the Board’s practice to adjudicate an

appeal that was premature when it was filed but became ripe when pending before the

Board).

5

Protection Board, 759 F.2d 9, 10 (Fed. Cir. 1985). To establish jurisdiction in a

typical IRA appeal under the Whistleblower Protection Enhancement Act of 2012

(WPEA), an appellant must prove by preponderant evidence 4 that he exhausted

his administrative remedies before OSC and make nonfrivolous allegations 5 that

(1) he made a disclosure described under 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8) or engaged in

protected activity described under 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(9)(A)(i), (B), (C), or (D),

and (2) the disclosure or protected activity was a contributing factor in the

agency’s decision to take or fail to take a personnel action as defined by 5 U.S.C.

§ 2302(a)(2)(A). Corthell v. Department of Homeland Security, 123 M.S.P.R.

417, ¶ 8 (2016), overruled on other grounds by Requena v. Department of

Homeland Security, 2022 MSPB 39. Once an appellant establishes jurisdiction

over an IRA appeal, he is entitled to a hearing on the merits of his claim, which

he must prove by preponderant evidence. Rebstock Consolidation v. Department

of Homeland Security, 122 M.S.P.R. 661, ¶ 9 (2015). For the following reasons,

we find that the appellant has established jurisdiction over this IRA appeal.

The appellant proved by preponderant evidence that he exhausted his

administrative remedies before OSC.

Under 5 U.S.C. § 1214(a)(3), an employee is required to “seek corrective

action from [OSC] before seeking corrective action from the Board” through an

IRA appeal. Miller v. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 122 M.S.P.R. 3,

¶ 6 (2014), aff’d, 626 F. App’x 261 (Fed. Cir. 2015). The purpose of the

exhaustion requirement is to give OSC “the opportunity to take corrective action

before involving the Board in the case.” Ward v. Merit Systems Protection

Board, 981 F.2d 521, 526 (Fed. Cir. 1992). To satisfy this requirement, an

appellant must provide to OSC a sufficient basis to pursue an investigation that

4

A preponderance of the evidence is the degree of relevant evidence that a reasonable

person, considering the record as a whole, would accept as sufficient to find that a

contested fact is more likely to be true than untrue. 5 C.F.R. § 1201.4(q).

5

A nonfrivolous allegation is an assertion that, if proven, could establish the matter at

issue. 5 C.F.R. § 1201.4(s).

6

might lead to corrective action. Chambers v. Department of Homeland Security,

2022 MSPB 8, ¶ 10.

The appellant did not provide a copy of his OSC complaint or any of his

written correspondence to OSC, nor did he submit an affidavit, sworn statement,

or declaration under penalty of perjury explaining what claims he raised before

OSC. Instead, as described above, the appellant submitted correspondence from

OSC that identified the claims that he raised in his complaint. IAF, Tab 9

at 19-21, Tab 12 at 26-28. Although OSC’s characterizations of the appellant’s

allegations are not binding on the Board, Bloom v. Department of the Army,

101 M.S.P.R. 79, ¶ 10 (2006), the appellant does not dispute OSC’s

characterizations of his allegations. Therefore, we have only considered OSC’s

characterization of the appellant’s claims as part of our exhaustion analysis.

In his petition for review, the appellant cites Briley v. National Archives

and Records Administration, 236 F.3d 1373 (Fed. Cir. 2001), to support his

argument that he exhausted his OSC remedies because he gave OSC information

containing the core of his retaliation claim and a sufficient basis to conduct an

investigation. PFR File, Tab 6 at 15-17. We agree.

Based on the OSC letters described above, we find that the appellant made

a reasonably clear and precise claim with OSC that his nonselections in 2016 and

2017 and his supervisor’s Report of Contact were taken in retaliation for

reporting safety violations at the Hines VA Hospital to agency officials and to the

agency’s OIG, and thus, OSC had a sufficient factual basis to pursue an

investigation. IAF, Tab 9 at 19-21, Tab 12 at 26-28. Therefore, we find that the

appellant met his burden of proving by preponderant evidence that he exhausted

his administrative remedies regarding these claims.

However, we find that the appellant failed to prove exhaustion regarding

the additional reprisal claims raised in this appeal. In particular, the OSC letters

do not mention any allegedly retaliatory agency actions other than the appellant’s

nonselections and the Report of Contact, any claim that he was perceived as a

7

whistleblower or that he reported insufficient resources for his Industrial

Hygienist position, or any allegations concerning his prior whistleblowing

disclosures at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center or his prior Board appeal.

OSC’s January 11, 2018 letter acknowledged that the appellant alleged that his

veterans’ preference rights may have been violated during the hiring process;

however, OSC did not indicate that he alleged reprisal for disclosing a violation

of such rights. IAF, Tab 9 at 20. Further, OSC’s statement in its February 15,

2018 letter that the appellant requested the closure letter of a prior OSC

complaint does not suggest that he alleged reprisal in this matter based on that

prior complaint. IAF, Tab 12 at 27.

With his petition for review, the appellant includes new evidence,

including, among other things, his March 8, 2018 and May 20, 2018 emails (in

which he asked OSC to reopen his complaint based on new information and

evidence), OSC’s May 21, 2018 response denying his request to reopen the

complaint and informing him that he could file a new complaint, and his May 8-9,

2018 emails (on which the OSC investigator was carbon copied) concerning his

new application for the Industrial Hygienist (Green Environmental Management

Systems (GEMS) Coordinator) position. PFR File, Tab 6 at 18-19, 29, Tab 23

at 10-22, 32-48. This evidence may be relevant to whether he exhausted a claim

of reprisal involving a nonselection for a position as an Industrial Hygienist

(GEMS Coordinator) in 2018. Because OSC closed his complaint regarding the

allegations in this matter on February 15, 2018, and the OSC investigator denied

his request to reopen his complaint, his subsequent communications with OSC

cannot serve to prove exhaustion of any additional claims before OSC.

For the first time on review, the appellant alleges that the agency retaliated

against him for “testifying or otherwise lawfully assisting any individual in the

exercise of any right such as himself making a [Department of Labor Veterans’

Employment and Training Service] complaint” and for “refusing to obey an order

that would require [him] to violate a law.” PFR File, Tab 6 at 10-11. Even if we

8

construe his claim as an allegation of reprisal for activity protected by 5 U.S.C.

§ 2302(b)(9)(B) and/or (D), the appellant fares no better. Importantly, there is no

evidence that he exhausted such a claim with OSC, and he has not explained why

he was unable to raise this claim before the administrative judge. See Banks v.

Department of the Air Force, 4 M.S.P.R. 268, 271 (1980) (finding that the Board

generally will not consider an argument raised for the first time in a petition for

review absent a showing that it is based on new and material evidence not

previously available despite the party’s due diligence).

The appellant has nonfrivolously alleged that he made whistleblowing disclosures

and engaged in activity protected by 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(9)(C).

The next jurisdictional inquiry is whether the appellant has made a

nonfrivolous allegation that he made a whistleblowing disclosure or engaged in

protected activity. Corthell, 123 M.S.P.R. 417, ¶ 8. A nonfrivolous allegation of

a protected disclosure is an allegation of facts that, if proven, would show that the

appellant disclosed a matter that a reasonable person in his position would believe

evidenced one of the categories of wrongdoing specified in 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)

(8). Salerno v. Department of the Interior, 123 M.S.P.R. 230, ¶ 6 (2016). The

test to determine whether a putative whistleblower has a reasonable belief in the

disclosure is an objective one: whether a disinterested observer with knowledge

of the essential facts known to and readily ascertainable by the employee could

reasonably conclude that the actions of the agency evidenced a violation of law,

rule, or regulation, gross mismanagement, a gross waste of funds, an abuse of

authority, or a substantial and specific danger to public health or safety. Id.

The appellant’s submissions are not a model of clarity. However, we have

identified the following disclosures of safety violations that he made at the Hines

VA Hospital: (1) he investigated and reported on an ongoing mold problem,

which showed that his supervisor, as the Safety Manager, was noncompliant with

Federal Health and Safety Program requirements and had ignored the problem for

months; (2) he reported mold growing on walls and entering the ventilation

9

system and unsanitary conditions (specifically feces on the floors and toilets) in

Building 17; (3) he reported asbestos in Building 9, to which young children were

apparently exposed; (4) he reported that a dilapidated steam tunnel system

contained asbestos and posed a danger of steam leaks, and a contract providing

rescue services for the steam tunnel system was not in compliance with

Occupational Safety and Health Administration regulations; and (5) he reported

that his work-related injury was caused by his supervisor’s failure to fix problems

with a hazardous waste shed. IAF, Tab 6 at 3-4, 8-9, 16-17, 22, Tab 9 at 4, 8-9,

12-13, Tab 10 at 3-4, 11. The appellant further asserted that the information he

reported evidenced a violation of law, rule, or regulation, gross mismanagement,

a gross waste of funds, an abuse of authority, and a substantial and specific

danger to public health or safety. IAF, Tab 6 at 18.

We find that the appellant has nonfrivolously alleged that a reasonable

person in his position would believe that disclosures (1)-(5) evidenced violations

of a law, rule, or regulation and a substantial and specific danger to public health

or safety. 6 See, e.g., Schoenig v. Department of Justice, 120 M.S.P.R. 318, ¶ 9

(2013) (finding that a reasonable person would believe that the appellant’s

alleged disclosures of improper evacuation signage and blocked exit access,

among other things, disclosed violations of Federal regulations regarding

maintaining a safe workplace); Wojcicki v. Department of the Air Force,

72 M.S.P.R. 628, 634-35 (1996) (finding that the appellant reasonably believed

that he disclosed a substantial and specific danger to public health or safety when

he disclosed that problems with the sandblasting procedure and equipment were

exposing him and his coworkers to toxic dust). Indeed, in determining whether a

disclosure evidenced a substantial and specific danger to public health or safety,

6

The WPEA clarified, in relevant part, that a disclosure made to a supervisor or to a

person who participated in the activity that is the subject of the disclosure or a

disclosure made during the normal course of duties is not excluded from 5 U.S.C.

§ 2302(b)(8). Bradley v. Department of Homeland Security, 123 M.S.P.R. 547, ¶ 6 n.1

(2016).

10

it is relevant for the Board to consider factors such as (1) the likelihood of harm

resulting from the danger, (2) the imminence of the potential harm, and (3) the

nature of the potential harm. Parikh v. Department of Veterans Affairs,

116 M.S.P.R. 197, ¶ 14 (2011). We further find that the appellant’s allegations of

safety issues are specific and, if true, would pose an immediate danger to the

health and safety of staff, patients, and visitors at the Hines VA Hospital.

We also find that the appellant has nonfrivolously alleged that a reasonable

person in his position would believe that disclosure (1), concerning an ongoing

mold problem, evidenced gross mismanagement by his supervisor. Gross

mismanagement means more than de minimis wrongdoing or negligence—it

means a management action or inaction that creates a substantial risk of

significant adverse impact on the agency’s ability to accomplish its mission.

Swanson v. General Services Administration, 110 M.S.P.R. 278, ¶ 11 (2008). If,

as the appellant alleges, his mold investigation showed that his supervisor had

ignored a serious, ongoing mold problem for months, e.g., IAF, Tab 6 at 3, 9,

16-17, a reasonable person could conclude that the appellant’s supervisor

committed an act of gross mismanagement undermining the agency’s ability to

perform its mission of treating patients. By contrast, the appellant has failed to

make a nonfrivolous allegation that a reasonable person in his position would

believe that disclosures (2)-(5) evidenced more than de minimis wrongdoing or

negligence by management that undermined the agency’s ability to accomplish its

mission.

We further find that the appellant has failed to make a nonfrivolous

allegation that a reasonable person in his position would believe that disclosures

(1)-(5) evidenced a gross waste of funds or an abuse of authority. A “gross waste

of funds” is defined as more than merely a debatable expenditure that is

significantly out of proportion to the benefit reasonably expected to accrue to the

Government. Mc Corcle v. Department of Agriculture, 98 M.S.P.R. 363, ¶ 23

(2005). An “abuse of authority” occurs when there is an arbitrary or capricious

11

exercise of power by a Federal official or employee that adversely affects the

rights of any person or that results in personal gain or advantage to himself or to

preferred other persons. Id., ¶ 24. Here, the appellant’s alleged disclosures of

safety issues do not suggest that the agency wasted any funds. Further, a

reasonable person would not conclude that an arbitrary and capricious exercise of

power by an agency official or employee negatively affected any person’s rights

or resulted in personal gain or advantage to the agency official or to preferred

other persons.

Finally, “disclosing information to the Inspector General . . . of an

agency . . . in accordance with applicable provisions of law” is activity that is

protected by 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(9)(C). The appellant’s OIG complaint therefore

constitutes a nonfrivolous allegation of protected activity. IAF, Tab 6 at 115.

Having found that the appellant made a nonfrivolous allegation of a

whistleblowing disclosure and protected activity, we now turn to contributing

factor.

The appellant has made a nonfrivolous allegation that his whistleblowing

disclosures were a contributing factor in the 2016-2017 nonselections. 7

To satisfy the contributing factor criterion at the jurisdictional stage, an

appellant only need raise a nonfrivolous allegation that the fact of, or content of,

the whistleblowing disclosure was one factor that tended to affect the personnel

action in any way. Salerno, 123 M.S.P.R. 230, ¶ 13. Under the

7

The appellant asserted that people at the Hines VA Hospital would have known about

his OIG complaint based on the OIG’s proximity to other offices and the OIG Special

Agent’s investigatory actions. IAF, Tab 9 at 7. This assertion is speculative because,

according to the appellant, the OIG Special Agent did not investigate his complaint for

fear of retaliation, and OIG closed the case approximately 1 week after the appellant

filed the complaint. IAF, Tab 6 at 9, 115. Thus, we find that the appellant has failed to

nonfrivolously allege that any agency employee had actual or constructive knowledge of

his OIG complaint, and he failed to satisfy the contributing factor criterion regarding

his OIG complaint. Cf. Dorney v. Department of the Army, 117 M.S.P.R. 480, ¶ 13

(2012) (finding that the appellant made a nonfrivolous allegation that her protected

disclosures were a contributing factor in the agency’s decision not to select her because

the selecting official based his decision, in part, on a recommendation from an

employee who knew about some of the appellant’s activities and disclosures).

12

knowledge/timing test, an appellant may nonfrivolously allege that the disclosure

was a contributing factor in a personnel action through circumstantial evidence,

such as evidence that the official who took the personnel action knew of the

disclosure and that the personnel action occurred within a period of time such that

a reasonable person could conclude that the disclosure was a contributing factor

in the personnel action. 5 U.S.C. § 1221(e)(1); Salerno, 123 M.S.P.R. 230, ¶ 13.

For the following reasons, we find that the appellant has nonfrivolously alleged

that disclosures (1)-(5) were a contributing factor in his 2016 and 2017

nonselections. 8

Although the appellant has not specified exactly when he made disclosures

(1)-(5), it appears that he made them when he occupied the Industrial Hygienist

position at the Hines VA Hospital from December 2015 to June 2016. IAF, Tab 6

at 10-11, 26. Moreover, the nonselections occurred in 2016 and 2017. Therefore,

the timing component is satisfied. See Salerno, 123 M.S.P.R. 230, ¶ 14

(observing that a personnel action taken within approximately 1 to 2 years of the

disclosures satisfies the timing component of the knowledge/timing test).

Turning to the knowledge component, we find that the appellant has

nonfrivolously alleged that his supervisor had actual knowledge of disclosures

(1), (3), and (5). Notably, he alleged that his supervisor became “hot headed”

when he began investigating the ongoing mold problem, he emailed her about

asbestos in Building 9, and he felt threatened by her demeanor and statements

when he reported that he was injured because she did not fix the hazardous waste

shed. IAF, Tab 6 at 22, Tab 9 at 12, Tab 10 at 4. We further find that the Human

Resources Officer (HRO) had knowledge of disclosure (2) because the appellant

8

A nonselection is a personnel action. King v. Department of the Army, 116 M.S.P.R.

689, ¶ 10 (2011). However, we find that the appellant has failed to nonfrivolously

allege that his supervisor’s Report of Contact, which does not suggest disciplinary or

corrective action, is a personnel action under 5 U.S.C. § 2302(a)(2)(A). IAF, Tab 9

at 23. To the extent the appellant argued below that the Report of Contact was part of a

pattern of harassment that created a hostile work environment, IAF, Tab 10 at 1, he has

failed to prove that he exhausted his administrative remedies regarding such a claim,

supra, ¶ 15.

13

asserted that he reacted in an “unforgiving manner” to his report of mold and

unsanitary conditions in Building 17 (the Human Resources building). IAF,

Tab 9 at 8. Regarding disclosure (4), the appellant alleged that he was

“threatened” by the Supervisor for Fire Safety for making such a disclosure to

agency leadership. Id. at 9.

There are other ways to satisfy contributing factor. For example, an

appellant can show that a protected disclosure was a contributing factor in a

personnel action by proving that the official taking the action had constructive

knowledge of the protected disclosure. Bradley v. Department of Homeland

Security, 123 M.S.P.R. 547, ¶ 15 (2016). An appellant may establish an official’s

constructive knowledge of a whistleblowing disclosure by demonstrating that an

individual with actual knowledge of the disclosure influenced the official accused

of taking the retaliatory action. Id. When the personnel action is a nonselection,

evidence concerning who was involved in the selection process, what they knew

about the appellant’s whistleblowing disclosures, and who may have influenced

their decision is exclusively without the agency’s possession. Id., ¶ 16.

Therefore, at this stage, the appellant can meet his burden of proof without

specifically identifying which management officials were responsible for the

reprisal. Id.

Here, however, the appellant asserted that the HRO, as the most senior

Human Resources manager at the facility, was the “gatekeeper” for jobs, was a

“key decision maker for accepting or forwarding application[s] to appropriate

officials,” and had the “authority to recommend [applicants] [and the]

responsibility to forward veteran applicants.” IAF, Tab 9 at 2, 4, Tab 10 at 6,

8-9. The appellant further alleged that the HRO “deceived” him regarding his

veterans’ preference rights and wrongfully influenced an acting hiring manager

who interviewed him. IAF, Tab 6 at 1-2, Tab 9 at 2, 4, Tab 10 at 9-10. The

appellant also alleged that his supervisor used the HRO as a “puppet” to retaliate

against him by submitting a false Report of Contact to human resources, which

14

prevented him from being rehired, and the Supervisor for Fire Safety had

“profound influence” on the HRO because he often chaired the Safety Committee.

IAF, Tab 6 at 3, 13. Given the nature of the personnel actions at issue, the

appellant’s allegations are sufficient to satisfy his burden to make nonfrivolous

allegations of contributing factor at the jurisdictional stage. Bradley,

123 M.S.P.R. 547, ¶¶ 15-17.

Because we find that the appellant exhausted his administrative remedies

with OSC and made nonfrivolous allegations that the agency failed to select him

for 5 positions in 2016 and 2017 due to disclosures (1)-(5), we remand this IRA

appeal for the appellant’s requested hearing and a decision on the merits.

On remand, the administrative judge should also address whether the

appellant’s disclosures were made in the normal course of his duties. Pursuant to

5 U.S.C. § 2302(f)(2), an appellant who makes a disclosure in the normal course

of his duties must additionally show that the agency took the action “in reprisal

for” his disclosure, and it thereby imposes a slightly higher burden for proving

that the disclosure was protected. Salazar v. Depaartment of Veterans Affairs,

2022 MSPB 42, ¶ 11. The National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year

2018 amended 5 U.S.C. § 2302(f)(2) to provide that it only applies to employees

whose principal job functions are to regularly investigate and disclose

wrongdoing, Salazar, 2022 MSPB 42, ¶¶ 13-14, and that that amendment is

entitled to retroactive effect. Salazar, 2022 MSPB 42, ¶¶ 15-21. The Board has

recently clarified that the potential applicability of 5 U.S.C.§ 2302(f)(2) is not

part of the jurisdictional analysis in an IRA appeal, and should instead be

considered at the merits stage. Williams v. Department of Defense, 2023 MSPB

23, ¶ 12.

On remand, the appellant must demonstrate by a preponderance of the

evidence that his disclosures were protected under 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8) and that

they were a contributing factor in a contested personnel action. 5 U.S.C.

§ 1221(e)(1). If the appellant’s principal job function was to regularly investigate

15

and disclose wrongdoing and he made his disclosures in the normal course of his

duties, to establish that his disclosures were protected, the appellant must also

prove that the agency had an improper, retaliatory motive for terminating him.

In conducting that analysis, the administrative judge should first determine

whether: (1) the appellant’s primary job function at the time of the disclosure

was to investigate and disclose wrongdoing; and (2) the disclosure was made in

the normal course of the appellant’s duties. The administrative judge may

consider these questions in whichever order is more efficient, and the parties

should be provided an opportunity to submit relevant evidence and argument. If

either condition is unsatisfied, then § 2302(f)(2) does not apply, and the

appellant’s disclosures would fall under the generally applicable 5 U.S.C.

§ 2302(b)(8). Salazar, 2022 MSPB 42, ¶ 22. If conditions (1) and (2) are both

satisfied, the administrative judge should next determine whether the appellant

can meet his additional burden under § 2302(f)(2) by demonstrating that the

agency took the contested personnel action “in reprisal” for his disclosures. In

doing so, the administrative judge should consider the totality of the evidence.

5 C.F.R. § 1201.4(q) (stating that the record as a whole should be considered

when determining whether a party has met the preponderance of the evidence

standard); see Whitmore v. Department of Labor, 680 F.3d 1353, 1368 (Fed. Cir.

2012) (“It is error for the MSPB to not evaluate all the pertinent evidence in

determining whether an element of a claim or defense has been proven

adequately.”) The determination of whether the agency took personnel actions

“in reprisal for” the appellant’s whistleblowing disclosures may include direct

and circumstantial evidence encompassing the following factors: (1) whether the

agency officials responsible for taking the personnel action knew of the

disclosures and the personnel action occurred within a period of time such that a

reasonable person could conclude that the disclosures were in reprisal for the

personnel action; (2) the strength or weakness of the agency’s reasons for taking

the personnel action; (3) whether the disclosures were personally directed at the

16

agency officials responsible for taking the action; (4) whether the acting officials

had a desire or motive to retaliate against the appellant; and (5) whether the

agency took similar personnel actions against similarly situated employees who

had not made disclosures. Williams, 2023 MSPB 23, ¶ 16.

The appellant’s remaining arguments on review do not warrant a different

outcome.

In an IRA appeal, the Board lacks the authority to adjudicate the merits of

the underlying personnel action; rather, the Board’s jurisdiction is limited to

adjudicating the whistleblower allegations. Lu v. Department of Homeland

Security, 122 M.S.P.R. 335, ¶ 7 (2015); see Marren v. Department of Justice,

51 M.S.P.R. 632, 638-39 (1991) (stating that Congress did not give the Board

general jurisdiction to decide the merits of the underlying personnel action from

which an IRA complaint stems except to the extent that they are relevant or

material to the appellant’s allegations of retaliation for whistleblowing

disclosures), aff’d, 980 F.2d 745 (Fed. Cir. 1992) (Table), and modified on other

grounds by Robinson v. U.S. Postal Service, 63 M.S.P.R. 307, 323 n.13 (1994).

On review, the appellant asserts that the agency violated his constitutional

rights, committed harmful error and other prohibited personnel practices,

discriminated against him, and failed to follow proper recruitment and selection

procedures in violation of the Veterans Employment Opportunities Act of 1998

(VEOA). PFR File, Tab 6 at 5-30. The Board does not have jurisdiction over

these claims in the context of an IRA appeal. See, e.g., Benton-Flores

v. Department of Defense, 121 M.S.P.R. 428, ¶ 6 n.1 (2014) (finding no

jurisdiction over the appellant’s claim of harmful procedural error in an IRA

appeal); Smets v. Department of the Navy, 117 M.S.P.R. 164, ¶ 14 (2011) (finding

that the appellant could not bring a claim of disability discrimination in an IRA

appeal), aff’d, 498 F. App’x 1 (Fed. Cir. 2012); McCarthy v. International

Boundary and Water Commission, 116 M.S.P.R. 594, ¶ 27 (2011) (finding that

the appellant’s allegations of constitutional violations could not be heard in his

17

IRA appeals), aff’d, 497 F. App’x 4 (Fed. Cir. 2012). On remand, the

administrative judge should consider such assertions only to the extent they are

relevant or material to the appellant’s reprisal claims. 9

The appellant’s arguments concerning equitable tolling and jurisdiction

under VEOA and the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights

Act of 1994 (USERRA), e.g., PFR File, Tab 6 at 7, 20-24, 27, 29, seem to relate

to his separate VEOA and USERRA appeals, which are currently pending before

the Board in Hendy v. Department of Veterans Affairs, MSPB Docket Nos. CH-

3330-18-0110-I-1, CH-4324-18-0228-I-1. 10 We deny the appellant’s request to

join this IRA appeal with his other Board appeals, PFR File, Tab 6 at 7, because

doing so would not expedite processing of the cases, 5 C.F.R. § 1201.36(b).

We have reviewed the appellant’s evidence and argument concerning a

2018 nonselection for an Industrial Hygienist (GEMS Coordinator) position. PFR

File, Tab 6 at 29. As noted above, the appellant did not prove that he exhausted

this claim with OSC. Moreover, it appears that this nonselection was the subject

of his recently-closed VEOA and USERRA appeals. Hendy v. Department of

Veterans Affairs, MSPB Docket No. CH-3330-18-0514-I-1, Initial Decision

(April 23, 2019); Hendy v. Department of Veterans Affairs, MSPB Docket No.

CH-4324-18-0541-I-1, Initial Decision (April 23, 2019); Hendy v. Department of

Veterans Affairs, MSPB Docket Nos. CH-3330-18-0514-I-1, CH-4324-18-0541-I-

1, Final Order (March 20, 2024). Therefore, we do not consider such evidence

and argument on review.

The appellant argues that the administrative judge is biased because he did

not receive proper service of documents in his USERRA appeal and the

administrative judge should have held a hearing in his IRA appeal. PFR File,

9

To the extent the appellant believes that any of his supplemental documentation is

relevant to the merits of his reprisal claims, he may resubmit such documentation on

remand.

10

The Board will issue separate orders that address the issues raised in the appellant’s

other appeals.

18

Tab 6 at 24-25. We disagree. An administrative judge’s conduct during the

course of a Board proceeding warrants a new adjudication only if the

administrative judge’s comments or actions evidence “a deep-seated favoritism or

antagonism that would make fair judgment impossible.” Bieber v. Department of

the Army, 287 F.3d 1358, 1362-63 (Fed. Cir. 2002) (quoting Liteky v. United

States, 510 U.S. 540, 555 (1994)). The appellant’s broad allegation of bias is

insufficient to rebut the presumption of the administrative judge’s honesty and

integrity. Oliver v. Department of Transportation, 1 M.S.P.R. 382, 386 (1980);

see Vaughn v. Department of the Treasury, 119 M.S.P.R. 605, ¶ 18 (2013)

(observing that the Board will not infer bias based on an administrative judge’s

case-related rulings).

Although the appellant contends that the administrative judge did not

review all of his motions, he does not specify which motions were not reviewed

or explain how his substantive rights have been harmed. PFR File, Tab 6 at 28;

see Karapinka v. Department of Energy, 6 M.S.P.R. 124, 127 (1981) (finding that

an administrative judge’s procedural error is of no legal consequence unless it is

shown to have adversely affected a party’s substantive rights).

Finally, we deny the appellant’s request for a stay. PFR File, Tab 6 at 30.

A stay request of a personnel action must be filed with the appropriate Board

regional or field office, not to the full Board on petition for review. 5 C.F.R.

§ 1209.8(b).

We have considered the appellant’s remaining evidence and argument on

review, but none warrant a different outcome.

ORDER

Because we find that the appellant exhausted his administrative remedies

with OSC and made nonfrivolous allegations that disclosures (1)-(5) were a

contributing factor in the agency’s decision not to select him for 5 positions in

2016 and 2017, we vacate the initial decision and remand this case to the Central

19

Regional Office for a hearing and further adjudication in accordance with this

Remand Order.

FOR THE BOARD: ______________________________

Gina K. Grippando

Clerk of the Board

Washington, D.C.

This is a copy of a public record, reproduced as it was published. It is not legal advice, and it may not be the version a court would rely on. Check the official source before you cite it.

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